Quiz-10: English and Pedagogy MCQ Questions with Answer

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English and Pedagogy MCQ Questions with Answer
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Directions (Q. 1-9): Read the passage given below and answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

The nation is proud of its scientists and scholars, though, of course, many of them would reply that they doubt whether the nation cares for them at all. When asked why many of our best and brightest have gone abroad to make a living, they opine that this is because as a nation we have not cared for the talented and meritorious.

There is some truth in what they say. However, by and large, compared to the situation before independence, government assistance has provided a tremendous opportunity for higher education. If today’s Indian scientists, technologists and scholars in different fields are respected worldwide, it is because of the education system we have built up.

Our excellence is evident within the confines of the limited opportunities that are available for research and development in universities and national R&D laboratories. We believe and appeal that scientists, researchers and scholars should shed their pessimism. There are many reasons for it.

We know the problems they face, especially the younger ones, and also those who are not in positions of power in these institutions, the so-called middle levels and the lower levels. We appeal to these people to think big because they are the only ones who understand the forces of technological modernisation and the new energies that can be unleashed through technologies. They also have the capability to absorb the knowledge base that is growing at an explosive rate.

Q1. What is ironic about our pride in our scientists?

(a) They go abroad to make a living

(b) They are talented and meritorious.

(c) They are held in high esteem.

(d) The nation cares for them.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: An irony is when the opposite of what is expected or apparent. In the passage, it is said that the nation is proud of its scientists and scholars. However, they go abroad to make a living because they feel neglected.

Q2. What happens to our best scientists?

(a) They get government grants.

(b) They don’t get respectable jobs here.

(c) They start teaching in colleges.

(d) They start doing research.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The talented and meritorious scientists and scholars do not get respectable jobs in our country, so they are forced to move abroad to make a living.

Q3. After independence, how has the situation changed in India?

(a) The government is sending scientists abroad.

(b) Our system of higher education has improved a lot.

(c) Foreign scholars are teaching in our universities.

(d) Scientists are given Padma awards.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: After independence, the effort made by the government to improve the higher education system in India is the reason why our scientists, technologists and scholars are respected worldwide.

Q4. Our scientists have proved to be excellent even if ______

(a) We have excellent research centres

(b) We offer them excellent opportunities

(c) We pay them well

(d) We offer them limited opportunities

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Our scientists have proved their excellence even though they have been provided limited opportunities for research and development in universities and national R&D laboratories.

Q5. The writer wants our scientists to

(a) Go abroad to make a living

(b) Be pessimistic in their approach

(c) Be optimistic in their attitude

(d) Become part of the scientific community

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The writer opines that our scientists should think big and not be pessimistic.

Q6. Which one of the following is true?

(a) Our scientists are respected all over the world.

(b) Our scientists are not talented.

(c) We have the best research facilities in India.

(d) We care for our scientists.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The improvement of the higher education system in India has led to the production of scientists and scholars who are well-respected worldwide.

Q7. The writer makes an appeal to

(a) Neither the middle-level scientists nor the lower level scientists

(b) The lower-level scientists only

(c) Both the middle and lower-level scientists,

(d) The middle-level scientists only

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The writer appeals to both the middle- and lower-level scientists to think big. These scientists are the ones not in power.

Q8. The phrase ‘at an explosive rate’ means_

(a) At an abnormal speed

(b) With the help of an explosion

(c) At normal speed

(d) At a great speed

Answer: (d)

Explanation: ‘At an explosive rate’ means ‘at a great speed’. The writer says that the knowledge base is growing at a great speed, which the young scientists are capable of absorbing.

Q9. The word opposite in meaning to ‘unleashed’ is

(a) Controlled

(b) Uncontrolled

(c) Unfastened

(d) Inexpensive

Answer: (a)

Explanation: ‘Unleashed’ means uncontrolled or loosened. Its opposite would be ‘controlled’.

Directions (Q. 10-15): Read the poem given below and answer the questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

Human Nature

Is it human nature

to desire forbidden fruit,

to hunger for a blossom

SO obsessed with passion

that we forget the pain,

which inevitably arises

once we tease ourselves

with the thought of it

or taste a tiny part of it,

and it becomes the predator

eating at us like a carnivore

that saves the head for last

savouring the brain to feed its own

and we, still craving illicit nectar

enjoying the fact that it is devouring us?

……C.J.Grant

Q10. Another word in the poem that suggests ‘forbidden’ is

(a) Obsess

(c) Savour

(b) Crave

(d) Illicit

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Just as ‘forbidden indicates denial of access or use, anything illicit’ means denial of acknowledgement or validity by society or law.

Q11. “It becomes the predator” means

(a) Strong emotions influence one negatively

(b) Pursuit of happiness

(c) Being cautious against outside influences

(d) Being strong and positive against any threat

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The word ‘predator is negative in connotation. Just as a predator eats up its prey, strong emotions can influence one negatively.

Q12. An example of personification in the poem is

(a) Saves the head

(b) Tease ourselves

(c) Illicit nectar

(d) Like a carnivore

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Personification is the attribution of human characteristics to a non-human entity. Here, the phrase ‘saves the head has been personified.

Q13. “Eating at us like a carnivore” refers to

(a) Being attacked by a wild beast

(b) Being attacked by a human enemy

(c) Being eaten up by an unknown entity

(d) Exerting a strong influence

Answer: (d)

Explanation: As the poem is based on an abstract theme, the reference to ‘carnivore also IS not to any creature or entity but to a strong influence.

Q14. “We, still craving illicit nectar” can be explained by focusing on the word

(a) We

(c) Illicit

(b) Craving

(d) Nectar

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The poem s about human nature. Craving can be a natural trait of any living creature but craving for anything that is “illicit’ is not desirable. Thus, the word illicit is focused here.

Q15. A synonym for the word ‘savouring‘ is

(a) Smelling

(c) Experiencing

(b) Flavouring

(d) Avoiding

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The word ‘savour means to enjoy an experience or a feeling.

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

Q16. The Indian Education Commission (IEC) was established in

(a) 1966

(c) 1986

(b) 1968

(d) 2005

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The IEC was established in 1966. The focus of the IEC is on the importance of extensive reading in learning.

Q17. Multiple-choice items consist of

(a) A set of questions

(b) Options to choose questions

(c) A sequence of grammatical errors

(d) A stem and a set of options

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Multiple choice items consist of a stem and a set of options. In Some exams, to avoid guesswork, there is negative marking for incorrect answers.

Q18. According to NCF 2005 [3.1.3], “At the initial stages of language learning languages for learning activities that create the may be one of the child’s awareness of the world.”

(a) Vernacular I Language

(b) Language-II

(c) Hindi

(d) English

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Vernacular language is the native language of a learner. According to NCF 2005, the native language of a child may be used at the early stages of learning.

Q19. Smaller Mass size for slow learners facilitates greater personalised instruction in the new language because of

(a) Incidental learning, informal assessment and more interaction

(b) Disciplined approach, less interaction and formal assessment

(c) More interaction, flexible schedule and authentic assessment

(d) Language focused, formal assessment and flexible schedule

Answer: (c)

Explanation: A class with a lesser number of students is preferred for a slow learner. It helps him/her in easy interaction without any inhibition. Such classes have flexible Schedules and provide an authentic assessment of a learner’s ability and progress.

Q20. Which of the following statements is false in the context of grammar?

(a) Descriptive grammar emphasises rules.

(b) Prescriptive grammar IS useful for the study of classical languages.

(c) The inductive method is based on psychological principles.

(d) The traditional method of teaching grammar emphasises cramming

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Instead of teaching language rules, descriptive grammar describes the rules that are already known.

Q21. Which of the following is best suited for improving the speaking skills of learners?

(a) Recitation of poetry

(b) Reading prose and a drama aloud

(c) Oral language drill

(d) Debates and group discussions followed by role play

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Speaking skills are developed in learners when they practise activities related to the speaking skill. Some such activities can be debates, speeches and group discussions.

Q22. A good test on reading comprehension will have questions

(a) That test the textual knowledge thoroughly

(b) That encourage learners to write answers without errors

(c) That test inference, interpretation and evaluation besides comprehension

(d) That focus primarily on the structures and words used in the text

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Reading comprehension tests the overall comprehension of the given text. It should have questions to test the inference, interpretation and evaluation of the text.

Q23. Integrating semantic function as a part of grammar instruction requires students to focus on

(a) Drills for the practice of grammatical structures

(b) Building fluency use rather than grammatical Correctness

(c) Accuracy of grammar use in syntax formation

(d) Communication of meaning and accuracy of language

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Semantic function relates to the meaning of an expression, while grammar instruction relates to accuracy in language. So, integrating semantic function as a part of grammar instruction would focus on the language being accurate and capable of communicating the meaning.

Q24. Learning a language involves the processes of listening, speaking, reading and writing. These processes involve

(a) Linguistic aspect

(b) Psychological aspect

(c) Either (a) or (b)

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The processes of listening, speaking, reading and writing involve both linguistic and psychological aspects. The psychological aspect includes attention, memory thought reasoning, etc. while the linguistic aspect includes the knowledge of grammar structure.

Q25. Which of the following is not included in the tripolar process of education?

(a) Age

(b) Objectives

(c) Learning

(d) Evaluation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The tripolar process of education consists of objectives, learning experience and evaluation.

Q26. A test to assess the potential of students for specific abilities and skills such as music, spatial ability or logical ability is called a/an

(a) Proficiency test

(b) Aptitude test

(c) Attitude test

(d) Achievement test

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Aptitude tests are designed to test the skill or ability in a particular field. They do not test knowledge.

Q27. An early emphasis on linguistic accuracy along with prompt error correction in L2 class at Class V level results in students

(a) Mastering the language more quickly

(b) Failure to achieve requisite proficiency required in that level

(c) Learning only the minimum or less

(d) Not learning at all

Answer: (c)

Explanation: For proficient and competent language learning, emphasising on linguistic accuracy and prompt error correction is not advocated. For younger students, language accuracy should be a gradual process, otherwise learning would be minimum or less.

Q28. Language evaluation must aim at

(a) Assessing the achievement of the learner in terms of grades

(b) Assessing the learner’s language proficiency

(c) Assessing the learner’s knowledge of the rules of language

(d) Assessing the learner’s ability to learn a new language

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The purpose of learning a language is to be proficient in all the four basic language skills, i.e. listening, speaking, reading and writing. So, the motive of evaluating a learner should not be to judge one sub-skill.

Q29. Which of these would be a valid ‘learning objective‘ for teaching a drama?

(a) The learner will be able to speak fluently with the correct stress, and intonation.

(b) The learner will be able to act effectively.

(c) The learner will be able to understand what drama is.

(d) The learner will have an opportunity to dress up in different costumes.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Teaching drama in an English class is very effective in teaching communication in an interesting way. It helps the learner speak fluently with correct stress and intonation.

Q30. In the following responses from students, choose what is incorrect.

(a) Backbiting

(b) Pickpocketing

(c) Babysitting

(d) Chain smoking

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Babysitting is taking care of a baby when his/her parents are not at home.

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