Quiz-4: Environmental Studies and Pedagogy MCQ Questions with Answer

Share on facebook
Facebook
Share on twitter
Twitter
Share on telegram
Telegram
Share on whatsapp
WhatsApp
Share on pinterest
Pinterest
Share on reddit
Reddit
Share on tumblr
Tumblr
Environment Studies and Pedagogy MCQ Questions with Answer
Quiz-1Quiz-2Quiz-3Quiz-4Quiz-5
Quiz-6Quiz-7Quiz-8Quiz-9Quiz-10
Quiz-11Quiz-12Quiz-13Quiz-14Quiz-15

Directions (Q. 1–30): Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

Q1. How is a robin’s nest different from a crow’s nest?

(a) Robin makes its nest with thorns of a cactus plant while crow makes its nest with straw and soft twigs.

(b) Robin makes its nest in a hole in a tree trunk while crow makes its nest on a tree.

(c) Robin makes a hanging nest while crow makes it on the support.

(d) Robin’s nest is soft while crow’s nest is hard.

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Robin’s nest is soft and made of soft things like grass, twigs, wool, etc. A crow’s nest is made of soft and hard things such as pieces of wire and wood.

Q2. Which of the following trees are commonly seen in Kerala?

(a) Betelnut and banana

(b) Poplar and coconut

(c) Chir and banana

(d) Poplar and chir

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Coconut, banana, papaya, betelnut and jackfruit are commonly found in Kerala.

Q3. Which of the following teeth are needed to gnaw?

(a) Elephant’s external teeth

(b) Squirrel’s front teeth

(c) Cow’s front teeth

(d) Tiger’s side teeth

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The front teeth of squirrels continue to grow throughout their life. Squirrels keep gnawing on things to control the length of their front teeth.

Q4. Which of the following is the responsibility of a leader for mountain trekking?

(a) Let the others go and keep to the last.

(b) Finding a suitable place to rest for long.

(c) Ask those to stay back who cannot climb properly.

(d) Commanding the members not to stop even if they are unwell.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: A group leader for mountain trekking should have the responsibility of keeping the group ahead and himself at the end. He should help those who cannot climb properly and find a suitable place to rest for some time. He should also help others in carrying their bags, and look after those who are not well.

Q5. What is the minimum age of girls to get married in our country?

(a) 17

(b) 18

(c) 19

(d) 20

Answer: (b)

Explanation: According to the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, the minimum age of marriage for a girl is 18 years and 21 years for a boy in India.

Q6. Read the following pairs of vitamins and the deficiency diseases associated with them:

I. Vitamin B1: Beriberi
II. Vitamin A: Rickets
III. Vitamin C: Scurvy
IV. Vitamin D: Night blindness

Identify the incorrect pairs of vitamins and the deficiency diseases associated with them.

(a) I and III

(b) II and III

(c) II and IV

(d) I and IV

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Rickets is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin-D, while night blindness is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin-A.

Q7. Study each pair of symptoms and diseases:

I. Swelling of legs and feet: Kwashiorkor
II. Very underweight body: Goitre
III. Bulky body: Obesity
II. Protruding eyes: Marasmus

Identify the correct pair:

(a) I and III

(b) II and III

(c) II and IV

(d) III and IV

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Marasmus is caused by the deficiency of proteins and carbohydrates. Its symptoms are a thin face, sunken eyes, a very underweight body and weak muscles. Obesity is a problem of being overweight. It is caused by overeating and insufficient exercise. Goitre is caused by the deficiency of iodine. It is characterised by protruding eyes, low intelligence, etc. Kwashiorkor is a severe protein deficiency disease. Its symptoms are swelling of the legs and feet, anaemia, etc.

Q8. Which of the following is the incorrect match of diseases and types?

(a) Autism, sickle-cell anaemia: Congenital

(b) Night blindness, anaemia: Deficiency disease

(c) Diabetes, kidney stones: Degenerative diseases

(d) Asthma, hay fever: Infectious disease

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Asthma and hay fever are allergic diseases caused by the exaggerated immune response of the body towards allergens such as dust particles, pollens, etc. Congenital diseases are present from the time of birth in individuals and are genetically controlled; for example, autism, sickle-cell anaemia, haemophilia, etc. Degenerative diseases are characterised by the malfunctioning of vital organs. For example, diabetes, kidney stones, etc. Night blindness and anaemia are deficiency diseases.

Q9. You are given some kilos of carrots to preserve for summer. Which one of the following ways of preserving them is good?

(a) Making their pickle

(b) Putting them in a plastic bag

(c) Putting them in refrigerators

(d) Storing them in airtight containers

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Pickling is one of the best ways to preserve fruits and vegetables such as carrots for a long time. Pickles are prepared by drying out the moisture and then adding preservatives such as salt and vinegar.

Q10. Salt and sugar help in the preservation of food by

(a) Adding water to food

(b) Removing water from food

(c) plasmolysing the microbial cells

(d) Making food indigestible for microbes

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Salt and sugar act as food preservatives. They plasmolysis microbial cells (agents responsible for the spoiling of food). Plasmolysis is the process of losing water by microbial cells.

Q11. Cholesterol-free labelled food items available in the market must contain a cholesterol level less than

(a) 2 mg per labelled serving

(b) 12 mg per labelled serving

(c) 1 mg per labelled serving

(d) 10 mg per labelled serving

Answer: (a)

Explanation: According to FDA (Food and Drug Administration), food items claiming to be cholesterol-free must contain a cholesterol level of less than 2 mg per labelled serving.

Q12. In a balanced diet, the largest part of our food is contributed by

(a) Vitamins and minerals

(b) Carbohydrates and fats

(c) Proteins and minerals

(d) Fats and proteins

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The largest part of a balanced diet is represented by carbohydrates and fats. These are energy giving foods. A normal person requires about 400– 500 g of carbohydrates per day.

Q13. Bhima Sangh in Karnataka was discussed in a chapter of grade 4. After their great efforts, they got successful in

(a) rejuvenating the tanks on slopes for collecting rainwater

(b) building a bridge for crossing a river

(c) making a gobar gas plant

(d) conserving trees

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Bhima Sangh got successful in rejuvenating the tanks on slopes for collecting rainwater. They cleaned dust, stones and wastes and grew plants around the tank. The rainwater filled in the tank was used by the people.

Q14. Pochampalli is a famous form of

(a) boat

(b) dyeing

(c) painting

(d) sweet dish

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Pochampalli is a famous form of dyeing involving traditional geometric patterns. Pochampalli saris are popularly weaved by the people in the Pochampalli district in Andhra Pradesh.

Q15. People of Mizoram are mostly involved in growing rice through Jhoom farming. They celebrate the completion of their work by getting together eating, singing and performing a special dance form called

(a) Bihu dance

(b) Cheraw dance

(c) Kalbelia dance

(d) Kuchipudi dance

Answer: (b)

Explanation: People of Mizoram celebrate the completion of their work of growing rice by eating and performing a special dance form called the ‘Cheraw’ dance. This dance form involves beating bamboo sticks on the ground following the drumbeat.

Q16. Which of the following activities is the best way to make students learn the topic of ‘Cultural diversity in food’ through active learning?

(a) Assigning a group project to collect related information from their families and discuss the data

(b) Showing flashcards having pictures of various food items eaten in different states

(c) Giving examples of food items eaten by people belonging to different cultures (d) Drawing pictures of different food items eaten in India

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Experimenting, exploring, investigating and questioning are the important components of active learning. Active learning follows the rule of ‘learning by doing. It can be best achieved through project work, discussion, group task, quiz, etc.

Q17. Which of the following is the most essential component of the preparation for a field visit?

(a) Asking students to carry a notebook and a pencil

(b) Asking students to carry a water bottle and some food to eat

(c) Making arrangements for assistant teachers and caretaker

(d) Grouping students and sharing with them the plan about the scheduled visit in the form of a prepared structured format activity sheet before the visit

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Preparing a structured activity sheet (including information of the place to be visited and what to be observed there) and discussing it with students before the visit will give students enough time to do their own preparation and research about the place for meaningful learning. One of the purposes of a field trip is that students learn from hands-on experience, correlating with what they have read, heard or discussed in the classroom.

Q18. Mid-day meal is the right of

(a) Every child

(b) Poor children

(c) middle-class children

(d) Poor children who perform well in exams

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Mid-day meal is the right of every child. This scheme was initiated by the Government of India to improve the nutritional status of school-going children.

Q19. Why is it important to give space to children in the teaching-learning process?

(a) Students differ in their level of thinking.

(b) Some students like to talk less than others.

(c) Students get irritated with the more attention of the teacher towards them.

(d) Some students show no sign of improvement even after good attention.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Students in a class are at different levels of thinking. It is important to give them space to explore their own ideas so that they can learn by doing themselves.

Q20. The concept of comprehensive under CCE aims at

(a) the long-form of assessment

(b) assessment of half of the syllabus

(c) assessing both scholastic and non-scholastic areas

(d) assessing all the students on all indicators quarterly

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Comprehensive refers to both scholastic and non-scholastic areas of a student’s growth. The objective of making the school-based evaluation process comprehensive is that the function of a school is not only to build the cognitive capacities of a student but also to develop his non-cognitive abilities. This can be ensured when the overall evaluation procedure of the school is comprehensive.

Q21. Sonali wants to emphasise more on preparing application-based questions for a class test. Which of the following types of questions should have been drafted by her for the same?

(a) How many forms of water are there?

(b) How would you explain the water cycle?

(c) Do you know any other instance where evaporation of water helps in cooling?

(d) Can you design a pot that can be used to keep the water for drinking in summers?

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Among the given questions, ‘Do you know of any other instance where evaporation of water helps in cooling?’ best represents the application-based question. Application-based questions assess whether students are able to connect the knowledge gained with day-to-day situations. For solving such questions, a student needs to be good at many indicators of learning such as observing, expressing, explaining and analysing.

Q22. Which of the following represents the benefit of having a debate on any topic in a class?

(a) Clearing thoughts on any issue

(b) Satisfying the desire of students to speak

(c) Overcoming the stress of studies in students

(d) Preparing students for various professions

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Debate helps children look at any issue from different angles. It also encourages children to express their opinions in the class.

Q23. Getting the answer from primary students for the question ‘Why do you think many trees cannot grow in desert areas?’ surely represents the achievement of which learning indicator?

(a) Questioning

(b) Explanation

(c) Classification

(d) Experimentation

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Under the indicator of explanation, a student is able to provide reasons and make logical connections.

Q24. Why are children encouraged to locate the discussed places in a map in most of the chapters of EVS?

(a) To promote the skill of calculation

(b) To understand the boundaries of states

(c) To promote the skill of drawing to scale

(d) To understand distances and directions of various places

Answer: (d)

Explanation: A map is a diagrammatic description of an area of land or sea. Reading maps develops the ability to determine the positions, distances and directions of various places of which we come to know in our daily life.

Q25. Which of the following activities does not represent the benefit of playing games for children?

(a) An aid for children who are emotionally disturbed and have social adjustment problems

(b) Developing the physical, social and cognitive abilities of a child

(c) Making child active and helping him acquire various physical skills

(d) Source of exclusive enjoyment away from formal learning

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Games and plays can be integrated with formal learning to make it more interactive and long­ lasting.

Q26. ‘Air is everywhere is a very basic and famous statement that every child learns. Which of the following techniques is the best for deeper under­ standing of this concept?

(a) Asking students questions— ‘Is there air in the soil? In water? Inside our body? Inside our bones?’

(b) Pressing down an empty inverted beaker on the surface of the water

(c) Reading a textbook chapter thoroughly

(d) Blowing balloons in front of students

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Asking students questions such as ‘Is there air in the soil?’ etc. promotes their thinking skills and lets them apply the idea in a simple situation.

Q27. Performing simple experiments and demonstrations in an EVS class helps

(a) Complete the syllabus easily

(b) Collect information for portfolio

(c) Reduce the number of theory periods

(d) Introduce students to the general science activities

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Performing simple experiments and demonstrations in an EVS class helps introduce students to general science activities and increases the process of scientific thinking in students. These activities involve prior imagination followed by experimentation and logical deduction.

Q28. Which of the following is not a component of active learning?

(a) Remembering

(b) Experimenting

(c) Questioning

(d) Exploring

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Remembering the concepts is not a component of active learning. The teacher should let students discover by themselves through the essential components of active learning of EVS such as observation, exploring, experimenting, questioning, etc.

Q29. Which of the following activities is not good for the learning of EVS?

(a) Involving students in activities such as group discussions and group projects

(b) Giving home assignments that focus on revision and reinforcement

(c) Beginning a class by posting a few key questions

(d) Experimenting and brainstorming in the class

Answer: (b)

Explanation: A good home assignment in EVS should primarily focus on giving challenges and bringing excitement for extended learning instead of focusing on revision and reinforcement.

Q30. Which of the following resources provides learning opportunities in real settings?

(a) Community

(b) Cinema

(c) Coach

(d) Class

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Community develops socio­ cultural aspects among students. This method provides learning opportunities in real settings in the absence of a teacher. In this method, a student acts as a teacher and all others as students. This resource can be used by involving students in surveys, group discussions and group projects.

Read Important Article

Leave a Comment

error: Content is protected !!