Q1. In Punjab, the ………. tribe was very influential during the 13th and 14th centuries.
(a) Khokhar
(b) Gakkhars
(c) Langahs
(d) Arghuns
Answer: (a) Khokhar
Explanation: Khokhars are from the Punjab region of India. Khokhars of Salt Range killed Muhammad Ghori in March 1206. They were agricultural tribes.
Q2. Which tribes were the most important trader nomads?
(a) Bhils
(b) Kolis
(c) Gonds
(d) Banjaras
Answer: (d) Banjaras
Explanation: Benjaras carried grain on their bullocks from different areas and sold it in towns. They were sometimes hired by merchants, but most commonly, they were themselves, merchants.
Q3. Most of the ‘Mahajanapadas’ were fortified because
(a) of availability of wood, brick, and stones in the area
(b) they reflected their wealth and power
(c) the rulers were scared of attack and wanted to ensure they were protected
(d) they were symbols of their ‘rich’ warrior tradition
Answer: (c) the rulers were scared of attack and wanted to ensure they were protected
Explanation: There were 16 Mahajanapadas and most of them Mahajanapadas were fortified from external attack and also protected people from harm.
Q4. For creating an effective administration practice in India, which one of the following was adopted by the British Government?
(a) Military expedition
(b) Practice of surveying
(c) Practice of land revenue collection
(d) Practice of exploiting native population
Answer: (b) Practice of surveying
Explanation: The British Government started the practice of surveys in 1871 for effective administrative practice in India.
Q5. What was the main reason behind the destruction of the Somnath temple by Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni?
(a) He wanted to build a palace there
(b) He did not like the architecture of the temple
(c) He tried to win credit as a great hero of Islam
(d) He wanted to use the temple for some other purposes
Answer: (c) He tried to win credit as a great hero of Islam
Explanation: Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni attacked the Somnath temple in AD 1025 for two main reasons, firstly to accumulate wealth and secondly is spread Islam as to take credit for the great hero of Islam.
Q6. What does PHC stand for?
(a) Private Health Centre
(b) Public Health Court
(c) Primary Health Centre
(d) Public Health Corporation
Answer: (c) Primary Health Centre
Explanation: PHC is a state-owned rural healthcare facility in India. They are essentially single physician’s clinics usually with facilities for minor surgeries.
Q7. Which of the following is not a primary economic activity?
(a) Mining
(b) Agriculture
(c) Trading
(d) Fishing
Answer: (c) Trading
Explanation: Mining, agriculture, and fishing come under primary economic activities whereas trade and commerce come under secondary economic activities.
Q8. In the middle of the 19th century, British historians divided the history of India into three periods, Hindu India, Muslim India, and British India. What is the basis of their division?
(a) It was convenient and easy to remember
(b) It was based on the idea that the religion of the rulers was an important historical change
(c) History of England is also written in a similar way
(d) Britishers felt that they were more knowledgeable at that point of time in history and so used this division
Answer: (b) It was based on the idea that the religion of the rulers was an important historical change
Explanation: The British historians divided Indian history for convenience rule. It was based on the idea of the religion of the rulers which was a significant historical change during that period.
Q9. The first English weekly magazine that described itself as ‘A commercial paper open to all, but influenced by none’ published in India was
(a) National Herald
(b) Bengal Gazette
(c) Kesari
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Bengal Gazette
Explanation: Hick’s Bengal Gazette was an English newspaper published in Kolkata. It was the first major newspaper in India started in 1780.
Q10. Which of the following Acts put censorship on the Indian press in the 19th century?
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Vernacular Press Act
(c) Citizens Charter
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Vernacular Press Act
Explanation: The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878 for better control of Indian-language newspapers.
Q11. Which one of the following was the most powerful weapon used by Lord Wellesley to bring the Indian states under the British Empire?
(a) The subsidiary alliance system
(b) Military conquest
(c) Doctrine of Lapse
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) The subsidiary alliance system
Explanation: The doctrine of Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by Lord Wellesley. Under the alliance, Indian rulers had to accept British forces within their territory and were not allowed to have their independent armed forces. For the British forces, they had to pay. In case of failure of payment, part of their territory was taken away as a penalty.
Q12. Before the British conquest of Bengal, India was by far the world’s largest producer of cotton textiles. The finest cotton was popularly known as
(a) Chintz
(b) cossies
(c) bandanna
(d) All of these
Answer: (a) chintz
Explanation: Chintz cotton was the finest cotton fabric and was popular in Europe. East India Company imported a quarter of a million pieces into Britain.
Q13. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by
(a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) is not subject to dissolution
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) is not subject to dissolution
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved. It is a permanent house, one-third of its members retire after 2 years.
Q14. Seal, Walruses, Musk-oxen, Arctic owls, and Polar bears are animals found in which of the following vegetation?
(a) Tundra
(b) Thorny Bushes
(c) Temperate Grassland
(d) Tropical Grassland
Answer: (a) Tundra
Explanation: Tundra type of vegetation is found in the polar areas of Europe, Asia and North America. This region is extremely cold and the animals found here, have thick fur and thick skin to protect themselves from the cold climatic conditions.
Q15. The total number of High Courts in India at present is
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 24
Answer: (d) 24
Explanation: The center constituted three new High Courts in North East Meghalaya, Manipur, and Tripura in 2013. Thus, the total number of High Courts became 24 from 21.
Q16. Which of the following regions is known as ‘orchards of the world’ for their fruit cultivation?
(a) the Mediterranean
(b) Tropical Grassland
(c) Tundra
(d) Temperate Grassland
Answer: (a) Mediterranean
Explanation: The Mediterranean regions are known as the ‘orchards of the world’ for their fruit cultivation. Citrus fruits like oranges, figs, olives, and grapes are commonly cultivated here.
Q17. Availability of food means
(a) Food production within the country
(b) Import of food
(c) Previous year’s stock stored in government granaries
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: Availability of food is the supply of food through sufficient production, export and import, etc.
Q18. Who among the following was the chief exponent of combining elements of modern Western civilization with the best within Indian tradition?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) William Jones
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Rabindranath Tagore
Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore founded an experimental school at Shantiniketan in West Bengal as an alternative to the British education system in which he tried to combine the best of both Eastern and Western culture and values.
Q19. Which of the following forests is found in higher latitudes and is also called ‘Taiga’?
(a) Coniferous forests
(b) Evergreen rainforest
(c) Temperate deciduous forests
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Coniferous forests
Explanation: Taiga is a belt of coniferous forests that consists mostly of pines, larches, and spruces. Higher altitudes (50°-70°) in the Northern Hemisphere.
Q20. Rosewood, Ebony, and Mahogany are common vegetation of which of the following types of forests?
Explanation: These forests are also called tropical rainforests. These thick forests occur in the regions near the equator and close to the tropics. These regions are hot and receive heavy rainfall throughout the year.
Q21. Match the following.
List-I
List-II
A. East Africa
I. Llanos
B. Brazil
II. Campos
C. Venezuela
III. Savanna
Codes: A B C
(a) III II I
(b) II I III
(c) III I II
(d) I II III
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Savanna grassland is scattered with shrubs and found between tropical rainforest and desert biomes compos found in the Southernmost part of the Brazilian grassland ecosystem which is plant species. Llanos is a tropical grassland situated in Venezuela.
Q22. What does the equality before the law used in Article 14 mean?
(a) That all individuals are equal
(b) That all laws are the same for everybody
(c) That all individuals are equally subjected to the ordinary law of the land
(d) That everybody is to be treated equally by law in equal circumstances
Answer: (d) That everybody is to be treated equally by law in equal circumstances
Explanation: Article 14 states ‘Equality before law’. The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is strictly prohibited.
Q23. Match the following
List-I
List-II
A. Rosewood
I. Temperate deciduous forests
B. Hardwood
II. Temperate evergreen forests
C. Eucalyptus
III. Tropical deciduous forests
D. Oak
IV. Tropical evergreen forests
Codes: A B C D
(a) IV III II I
(b) III IV II I
(c) I II III IV
(d) II I III IV
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Rosewood, is a tropical evergreen forest or rainforest and richly hard timber. Hardwood is a deciduous forest. It is found in tropical regions e.g. Mahogany. Eucalyptus is found in temperate alone, especially in Australia. Oak is found in temperate deciduous zones like Asia, North Africa, and Europe.
Q24. Settlements are places, where people build their homes. The natural condition for the selection of an ideal settlement is
I. Favourable climate
II. Availability of water
III. Suitable land
IV. Fertile soil
Which of the above statements is correct?
(a) III and IV
(b) I, II, and III
(c) I and IV
(d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: All the favorable natural conditions are prerequisites for the ideal settlement because climate, water, land, and fertile soil are the basic requirements for survival.
Q25. Consider the following statements
I. James Mill was a severe critic of the Orientalists.
II. The 1854 Wood’s despatch on education was in favour of English being introduced as a medium of higher education in India.
III. Mahatma Gandhi thought the promotion of literacy was the most important aim of education.
IV. Rabindranath Tagore felt that children ought to be subjected to strict discipline.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) I, II, and III
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) All of these
Answer: (a) I, II and III
Explanation: James Mill had hostility to orientalists The Wood’s despatch on education was introduced in 1854. It was called the Magna Carta of English Education in India. Gandhiji was the blind promotor of education was introduced in India.
Q26. Consider the following statements
I. Mahatma Gandhi argues that colonial education created a sense of inferiority in the minds of Indians.
II. Mahatma Gandhi strongly felt that Indian languages ought to be the medium of teaching.
III. He focused on reading and writing rather than oral knowledge.
IV. Education would develop an individual’s mind and capacity to understand.
Which of the above statements is true about Mahatma Gandhi’s view on education?
(a) I, II, and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was the promoter of education, but he was in favour of the Indian language, and the promotion of cultural reading, writing, and understanding rather than oral knowledge.
Q27. Match the following.
List-I
List-II
A. MNREGA
I. Self-employment opportunities for educated youth
B. SGSY
II. Food grains at subsidized rates
C. PMRY
III. 100 days assured employment every year
D. AAY
IV. Assisted poor families through self-help groups
Codes: A B C D
(a) III IV I II
(b) IV III I II
(c) I II III IV
(d) II I III IV
Answer: (a)
Explanation:MGNREGA- It is a 100-day assured employment for rural people. It was introduced by the Act of NREG 2005, was implemented in 200 districts of India initially in 2006, and also covered all the districts of India from 1st April 2008.
SGSY- It was launched on 1st April 1999. The objective is to bring the Swarozgar above the poverty line through bank credit and government subsidy.
PMRY- It was launched on 15th August 1993. It has been implemented to give employment to over a million people. In inception, it covered only urban regions. After 1994-95 scheme included educated unemployed youth.
AAY- It was launched in 2000, under this scheme 1 crore of the poorest are covered among the BPL families under the public distribution system. 25 kg of food grain were made available to each eligible family at the subsidized rate of ` 2/kg for wheat and ` 3 per kg for rice.
Q28. The Indian Constitution came into effect on 26th January,
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1950
(d) 1955
Answer: (c) 1950
Explanation: The date 26 January was chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj Declaration of Independence of 1950.
Q29. Who was Potti Sriramulu?
(a) A veteran Gandhian leader
(b) A leader who demanded a separate state for Telugu speakers
(c) Who went on a hunger strike for the demand of Andhra State
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: He was born in 1901, in Padamatapalli in Andhra Pradesh. He was influenced by the Gandhian approach. He was the leader of Telugu and demanded a separate state.
Q30. Which of the metals were used by the people of Mohenjodaro?
(a) Copper, Bronze, Gold, Silver
(b) Copper, Iron, Bronze
(c) Bronze, Tin, Silver
(d) Gold, Silver, Aluminium
Answer: (a) Copper, Bronze, Gold, Silver
Explanation: Copper, bronze, gold, and silver were being used by the people of Mohenjodaro. They were very fond of using ornaments.
