Q76. The main purpose of including the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to
(a) Establish a welfare State
(b) Establish a secular State
(c) Check the arbitrary action of the Government
(d) Provide best opportunities for development by the Government
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and state governments of India to establish a just society in the country. The principles relate to social justice, economic welfare, foreign policy, and legal and administrative matters.
Q77. A college student desires to get elected to the municipal council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that?
(a) He obtains permission from the principal of his college.
(b) He is a member of a political party.
(c) His name figures in the voter’s list.
(d) He files a declaration owing allegiance to the constitution of India.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The validity of the nomination of a person to get elected to the municipal council would depend on the condition that his name should be figured in the voter’s list.
Q78. Money bill has been defined in
(a) Article 110
(b) Article 111
(c) Article 112
(d) Article 113
Answer: (a)
Explanation:Article 110 – definition of money bills
Article 111 – Assent to Bills
Article 112 – Annual financial statement
Article 113 – Procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates
Q79. The right to free education within certain limits is
(a) Guaranteed as a Fundamental Right
(b) Enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Outlined in the Preamble of the Constitution
(d) Ignored by the Constitution
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), which was passed by the Indian parliament on 4 August 2009, describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution. India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child when the act came into force on 1 April 2010.
Q80. What is the qualification to contest the election of the Municipal Council?
(i) For the office of the President, his age should not be less than 25 years.
(ii) For the office of the councillor, his age should not be less than 21 years.
(iii) Whose name is on the voter list, he can contest the election.
(iv) A person can contest the election of a councillor from two wards simultaneously.
(v) A person can contest the election of president and councillor simultaneously.
(a) (i) , (ii) , (iii)
(b) (i) , (ii) , (v)
(c) (ii) , (iv) , (v)
(d) (iii) , (iv) , (v)
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The qualification to contest the election of Municipal Corporation are
(I) For the office of the President, his age should not be less than 25 years.
(II) For the office of Councillor his age should not be less than 21 years.
(V) A person can contest the election of president and councillor simultaneously.
Q81. The forms of oaths or affirmations for which of the following officials are mentioned in the third schedule of the Indian constitution?
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General
2. The Chief Election Commissioner
3. The Chief Justice of a High Court
4. The Attorney General
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The forms of oaths or affirmations, in the third schedule of the Indian constitution, are mentioned for the given officials. Third Schedule–(Articles 75(4), 99, 124(6), 148(2), 164(3), 188, and 219).
Q82. The financial distribution between the Union and the State takes place on the basis of the recommendations of which one of the following?
(a) The National Development Council
(b) The Inter-State Council
(c) The Planning Commission
(d) The Finance Commission
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
Q83. According to our Constitution, the Rajya Sabha
(a) is dissolved once in two years.
(b) is dissolved every five years.
(c) is dissolved every six years.
(d) is not subject of dissolution
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is not a subject of dissolution. Lok Sabha dissolved every five years.
Q84. The writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is issued in the event of
(a) Loss of property
(b) Refund of excess taxes
(c) Wrongful police detention
(d) Violation of the freedom of speech
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Habeas corpus means “you must present the person in court”. It is a writ (legal action) that requires a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court. This ensures that a prisoner can be released from unlawful detention, in other words, detention lacking sufficient cause or evidence.
Q85. Political equality is found in
(a) The absence of privileges
(b) Universal adult suffrage
(c) Equal distribution of wealth
(d) The rationality of the individual
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Political Equality means granting equal citizenship to all members of the state, and also, to ensure conditions that allow the citizens to participate in the affairs of the state. Political equality brings along with it certain rights such as the right to vote, right to contest elections, right to criticize the government etc. Political equality is based on the idea of a Universal Adult Franchise.
Q86. The source of authority of the Indian Constitution is:
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The Government
(c) The People of India
(d) The President
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The preamble of the Indian Constitution mentions that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India. The words in the preamble- “We, the people of India. Adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution” declare the ultimate sovereignty of the people of India and that the constitution rests on their authority.
Q87. The members of the Estimates Committee are
(a) Elected from Lok Sabha only
(b) Elected from Rajya Sabha only
(c) Elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(d) Nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Among the Standing Committees, the three Financial Committees – Committees on Estimates, Public Accounts, and Public Undertakings – constitute a distinct group as they keep an unremitting vigil over Government expenditure and performance. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, the members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha.
Q88. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during the national emergency?
(a) Articles 14 and 15
(b) Articles 19 and 20
(c) Articles 21 and 22
(d) Articles 20 and 21
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.
Q89. The salary of the Members of Parliament is decided by
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Central Cabinet
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The amenities provided to the members of parliament relating to salaries and allowances, travelling facilities, medical facilities, accommodation, telephones, etc. These are governed by the Salary, Allowances, and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954, and the rules made thereunder.
Q90. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the Parliament
Must be directly related to the conduct of the Union Government.
May involve the failure of the Government of India to perform its duties in accordance with the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The subject matter of the motion must have a direct or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government and must precisely pinpoint the failure of the Government of India in the performance of its duties in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and Law.
Q91. Who is the only second Vice–President of India to get a second consecutive term after S. Radhakrishnan?
(a) K.R. Narayanan
(b) B.S. Shekhawat
(c) M.H. Ansari
(d) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Mohammad Hamid Ansari is the only second vice-president of India to get a second consecutive term after S. Radhakrishnan. He was elected as Vice President of India on 10 August 2007 and took office on 11 August 2007. He was re-elected on 7 August 2012.
Q92. Which of the following High Courts has the largest number of Benches?
(a) Kolkata High Court
(b) Madhya Pradesh High Court
(c) Bombay High Court
(d) Guwahati High Court
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Guwahati High Court has the largest number of Benches. The principal seat of the Gauhati High Court is at Guwahati in Assam. The court has 3 outlying benches. These are:
The Kohima bench for Nagaland state.
The Aizawl bench for Mizoram state.
The Itanagar bench for Arunachal Pradesh state.
Q93. When was the Public Service Commission, the original version of the U.P.S.C. set up?
(a) 1st October 1926
(b) 1st April 1937
(c) 15th August 1947
(d) 26th January 1950
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Indianisation of the superior Civil Services became one of the major demands of the political movement compelling the British Indian Government to consider setting up of a Public Service Commission for recruitment to its services in the territory. The first Public Service Commission was set up on October 1, 1926. However, its limited advisory functions failed to satisfy the people’s aspirations and the continued stress on this aspect by the leaders of our freedom movement resulted in the setting up of the Federal Public Service Commission under the Government of India Act 1935. Under this Act, for the first time, provision was also made for the formation of the Public Service Commission at the provincial level. With the promulgation of the new Constitution for independent India on 26th January 1950, the Federal Public Service Commission was accorded a constitutional status as an autonomous entity and given the title – Union Public Service Commission.
Q94. Panchayati Raj is based on the principles of
(a) Decentralisation
(b) Deconcentration
(c) Democratic centralization
(d) Democratic decentralization
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The principle of democratic decentralization is very important and forms the basis of Panchayati Raj.
Q95. What is the category in which the negotiating strategy of a strike by the Government employees falls?
(a) Fundamental Rights of freedom of association and expression
(b) Legal Right
(c) Trade Union right as common law
(d) There is no right
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Indian laws have always recognized the workers’ right to strike. The Supreme Court of India has invariably maintained the “right to strike” as not a fundamental right, but a legal right that workers can exercise as part of collective bargaining, wage bargaining, and dispute resolution. However, several court rulings have also been in opposition to the right to strike, be it by political parties or trade unions. Some favourable court rulings on the workers’ right to strike are the Gujarat Steel Tubes v. Mazdoor Sabha AIR 1980 SC 1896, where the right to strike was held as integral to collective bargaining and as supported by social justice. Indian laws comprising sections 22, 23, and 24 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 imply that industries, such as hospitals, government departments, educational institutions, and clubs, have the right to strike. Strikes may be legal or illegal, based on the procedure for a strike, and it is decided by the judiciary.
Q96. Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Information Commission is a high-powered independent body.
2. The Central Information Commission is a constitutional body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Central Information Commission is a High powered independent body and not a Constitutional body.
Q97. With reference to Lok Adalat, consider the following statements:
An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.
Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court. It was according to the Legal Services Authority Act 1987, which gave statutory status to Lok Adalat.
Q98. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in parliament and state legislature does not require a constitutional Amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The 108th amendment bill or the women’s reservation bill, introduced in 2008, is a lapsed bill. The bill proposed to amend the Indian Constitution to reserve 33 per cent of seats for women in the lower house of the Indian Parliament, in the Lok Sabha, and in the state legislative assemblies.
Q99. Which presently serving State Chief Minister has been in office continuously for the longest period?
(a) Sheila Dikshit
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Bhupinder Singh Hooda
(d) Manik Sarkar
Answer: (d)
Explanation:Sheila Dikshit has served as Chief Minister of Delhi from 4 December 1998 to 27 December 2013.
Manik Sarkar has been the Chief Minister of Tripura from 11 March 1998 to 8 March 2018,
Narendra Modi has been the Chief Minister of Gujarat from 7 October 2001 to 22 May 2014.
Bhupinder Singh Hooda has been the Chief Minister of Haryana from 5 March 2005 to 26 October 2014
N.B: Longest tenure time Chief Minister of India was Jyoti Basu. CM of WB from 21 June 1977 to 5 November 2000
Q100. Consider the following statement:
1. No Proclamation of Emergency can be made by the President of India unless the Union Ministers of Cabinet rank, headed by the Prime Minister, recommended to him, in writing, that such a Proclamation should be issued.
2. The President of India must issue a Proclamation of Revocation of Emergency any time that the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving of the proclamation or its continuance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: According to Article 352, the President shall not issue a Proclamation under clause (1) or a Proclamation varying such Proclamation unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (that is to say, the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under article 75) that such a Proclamation issued has been communicated to him in writing. Every Proclamation issued under this article shall be laid before each House of Parliament and shall, except where it is a Proclamation revoking a previous Proclamation, cease to operate at the expiration of one month unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament: Provided that if any such Proclamation (not being a Proclamation revoking a previous Proclamation) is issued at a time when the House of the People has been dissolved, or the dissolution of the House of the People takes place during the period of one month referred to in this clause.
