Politics MCQ Questions with Answer

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Politics MCQ Questions with Answer

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Q1. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the:

(a) Act of 1909

(b) Act of 1919

(c) Act of 1935

(d) Act of 1947

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Government of India Act 1935, the voluminous and final constitutional effort at governing British India, articulated three major goals: establishing a loose federal structure, achieving provincial autonomy, and safeguarding minority interests through separate electorates. The federal provisions, intended to unite princely states and British India at the centre, were not implemented because of ambiguities in safeguarding the existing privileges of princes. In February 1937, however, provincial autonomy became a reality when elections were held.

Q2. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly? ​

(a) ​ J. L.  Nehru

​(b) ​ Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel ​

(c) ​ B. R.  Ambedkar ​

(d)  ​K. M. Munshi

Answer: (c) ​

Explanation: B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly

Q3. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India? ​

(a) ​Five years ​

(b) ​During the ‘pleasure’ of the President ​

(c) ​Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier ​

(d) ​Five years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier

Answer: (c)

Explanation: ​The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India is six years or till the age of 65 year whichever is earlier.

Q4. Any amendment in the Constitution of India, in regard to which of the following subjects, needs only a simple majority of the parliament?​​

  1. ​Directive principles of state policy.
  2. ​Election of the President and its manner
  3. ​Quorum in the Parliament
  4. ​Creation of the Legislative Council in a State

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) ​1 and 2 only

(b) ​2 and 3 only

(c) ​3 and 4 only

(d) ​1 and 4 only

Answer: (c) ​

Explanation: The amendment in the Directive Principle of state policy needs for a special majority of the Parliament where the amendment in the election of the President and its manner needs for a special majority of the parliament.

Q5. ​Which of the following states can nominate two women members to the legislative assembly? ​

(a) ​Himachal Pradesh ​

(b) ​Kerala ​

(c) ​Jammu and Kashmir ​

(d) ​Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (c)​

Explanation: The state of Jammu and Kashmir can nominate two women members to the Legislative Assembly. The two women may be nominated as members by the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir if he or she is of the opinion that women are not adequately represented.

Q6. Voting right by the youth at the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the general election of

(a) ​1987 ​

(b) ​1988 ​

(c) ​1989 ​

(d) ​1990

Answer: (c)​

Explanation: 61th amendment, 1989 on amending article 326 reduced the age for voting rights from 21 to 18.

Also Read: Ancient Indian History MCQ with Answer

Q7. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two years’ time?

​(a) ​B. J. P.  ​

(b) ​Janata Party ​

(c) ​Janata Dal ​

(d) ​Samajwadi Janata Party

Answer: (c)

Explanation: ​Janata Dal provided two Prime Ministers in two years. ​​H.D. Deve Gowda – 1996 to 1997 (11th Prime Minister) ​​I. K. Gujral – 1997 to 1998 (12th Prime minister).

Q8. Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)? ​

(a) ​JyotibaPhule ​

(b) ​Kanshi Ram ​

(c) ​B. R.  Ambedkar ​

(d) ​SahuMaharaj

Answer: (b)

Explanation: ​BSP was founded in 1983 by Kanshi Ram. Due to his deteriorating health in the 1990s, former school teacher Mayawati became the party’s leader.

Q9. Who was the President of the Republic of India who consistently described Indian Secularism as ‘Sarva Dharma Samabhav’?

(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(b) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(d) Giani Zail Singh

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The slogan “Sarva Dharma Sama Bhava” was coined by Mahatma Gandhi in pursuit of his dream of Hindu Muslim unity. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the President of the Republic of India who consistently described Indian Secularism as ‘Sarva Dharma Samabhav’.

Q10. The permanent president of the Constituent Assembly was

​(a) ​ Dr.  Ambedkar ​

(b) ​ Dr.  Rajendra Prasad

​(c) ​ K. M.  Munshi

​(d) ​ J. L.  Nehru

Answer: (b) ​

Explanation: The permanent President of the Constituent Assembly was Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Q11. The Constitution of India was adopted on

(a) 26 January 1950

(b) 26 January 1949

(c) 26 November 1949

(d) 31 December 1949

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Constitution was enacted/adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949, and came into effect on 26 January 1950. The date 26 January was chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of independence of 1930. With its adoption, the Union of India officially became the modern and contemporary Republic of India and it replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country’s fundamental governing document.

Q12. ​Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj? ​

(a) ​Article 36 ​

(b) ​Article 39

​(c) ​Article 40

​(d) ​Article 48

Answer: (c)​

Explanation: Article 40, of the Indian Constitution, provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj. The State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government. ​​

Article39 – Certain principles of policy to be followed by the state. ​​

Article 36 – Definition of DPSP. ​​

Article 48 – Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry.

Q13. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of

​(a) ​six years ​

(b) ​During the pleasure of the President ​

(c) ​For 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

​(d) ​For 5 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier

Answer: (c)

Explanation: ​The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Q14. Assertions (a): The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India.  ​

Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.  ​

Which of the following is correct? ​

(a) ​Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.  ​

(b) ​Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

​(c) ​A is true but R is false.

​(d) ​A is false but R is true.

Answer: (b)​

Explanation: The word minority is not defined in the constitution of India, yet it recognizes two types of minorities, based on religion and language. The minority commission is a statutory body constituted in 1993 by an act of Parliament.

Q15. Indian Penal Code came into operation in

(a) 1858

(b) 1860

(c) 1859

(d) 1862

Answer: (d)

Explanation:  Indian Penal Code is the main criminal code of India. It is a comprehensive code, intended to cover all substantive aspects of criminal law. It was drafted in 1860 and came into force in colonial India during the British Raj in 1862. It has since been amended several times and is now supplemented by other criminal provisions.

Q16. ​Which one among the following statements about the functioning of political parties in a democracy is not correct? ​​​​

​(a) ​Political parties give political education to the people ​

(b) ​Political parties serve as a link between the government and the people ​

(c) ​Political parties fight elections and try to get the maximum number of their candidates elected ​

(d) ​None of the above

Answer: (a)

Explanation: ​“Political parties give political education to the people” is not the function of political parties in a democracy.

Q17. The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis on ​

(a) ​Gram Sabha ​

(b) ​Mandal Sabha

​(c) ​Taluka Panchayat Samiti

​(d) ​Zila Parishad

Answer: (d)​

Explanation: Ashok Mehta Committee recommendations put greater emphasis on the Zila Parishad. This committee recommended that a district should be the first point for decentralization under popular supervision below the state level.

Q18. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states?

  1. ​Election of the president
  2. ​Representation of the states in parliament
  3. ​Any of the lists in the 7th schedule
  4. ​Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State.

(a) ​1, 2, and 3 only

(b) ​1, 2, and 4 only

(c) ​1, 3, and 4 only

(d) ​2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (a) ​

Explanation: Election of the President representation of the states in Parliament and any of the Lists in the 7th schedule require rectification of the Legislature of not less than one-half of the states for a constitution amendment.

Q19. When was our National Anthem first sung and where?

(a) 24th January 1950 in Allahabad

(b) 24th January 1950 in Delhi

(c) 26th December 1942 in Calcutta

(d) 27th December 1911 in Calcutta

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Written in highly Sanskritised (Tatsama) Bengali, it is the first of five stanzas of a Brahmo hymn composed and scored by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore. It was first sung in the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress on 27 December 1911.

Q20. The term ‘Caste’ was derived from

(a) Portuguese

(b) Dutch

(c) German

(d) English

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The English word “caste” derives from the Spanish and Portuguese casta, which the Oxford English Dictionary quotes John Minsheu’s Spanish dictionary (1599) to mean, “race, lineage, or breed.” When the Spanish colonized the New World, they used the word to mean a “clan or lineage.” However, it was the Portuguese who employed casta in the primary modern sense when they applied it to the many marrying hereditary Hindu social groups they encountered upon their arrival in India in 1498. The use of the spelling “caste,” with this latter meaning, is first attested to in English in 1613.

Q21. The National Human Rights Commission can: ​

  1. ​Enquire only on the presentation of a petition of the victim and not suo moto, into the complaint of a violation of human rights. ​
  2. ​Not intervene in any proceeding involving a violation of human rights pending before a court. ​

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ​

(a) ​1 only ​

(b) ​2 only ​

(c) ​Both 1 and 2 ​

(d) ​Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation: ​The commission can inquire suo moto or on a petition presented to it by the victim or any person on his behalf or on a direction into the complaint of a violation of human rights.

Q22. ​Proportional representation is NOT necessary for a country where? ​

(a) ​There are no reserved constituencies.  ​

(b) ​A two-party system has been developed ​

(c) ​The first past-post system prevails ​

(d) ​There is a fusion of presidential and parliamentary forms of government.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: ​In proportional representation, a candidate requires 50% + 1 vote to get elected. In a bi-party system, one automatically secures it. Proportional representation (PR) is a concept in voting systems used to elect an assembly or council. PR means that the number of seats won by a party or group of candidates is proportionate to the number of votes received

Q23. ​What was the duration in the making of the Indian Constitution? ​

(a) ​1 Year 10 Months and 12 Days ​

(b) ​2 Years 10 Months and 5 Days ​

(c) ​2 Years 11 Months and 18 Days

​(d) ​3 Years 6 Months and 7 Days

Answer: (c) ​

Explanation: The Indian Constitution is the world’s longest Constitution. At the time of commencement, the Constitution had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules. It consists of almost 80,000 words and took 2 years 11 months and 18 days to make.

Q24. Which was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?

(a) Right to Equality

(b) Right against Exploitation

(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies

(d) Right to Freedom of Religion

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Dr. B R Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting Committee, called the fundamental right to constitutional remedies the heart and soul of the Indian constitution. The right to constitutional remedies empowers the citizens to move to a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights. The courts can issue various kinds of writs. These writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari.

Q25. ​The constitutional status has been given to Panchayats under Article.  ​

(a) ​219 ​

(b) ​226

​(c) ​239

​(d) ​243

Answer: (d)​

Explanation: Article 243 gives constitutional status to the Panchayats.

Politics MCQ Questions with Answer

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Q26. A political party is recognized as a regional party, if

(a) ​It gets 4% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election ​

(b) ​It gets 6% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election ​

(c) ​It gets 8% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election

​(d) ​None of the above

Answer: (b)

Explanation: ​A political party is entitled to be recognized as a state party only if it secures at least 6% of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election either to the Lok Sabha or to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned and in addition wins at least 2 seats in the State Legislative Assembly of the concerned state.

Q27. The Constitution of India describes the country as a

(a) Union of States

(b) Federation

(c) Unitary State

(d) Confederation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Part I of the Constitution of India describes the nation that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. It also mentions that the states and the territories shall be specified in the First Schedule.

Q28. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties?

(a) ​With the consent of all the states

(b) ​With the consent of the majority of states

(c) ​With the consent of the state concerned

(d) ​Without the consent of any state.

Answer: (d) ​

Explanation: Art 253- Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the country or territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body without the consent of any state.

Q29. The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with the

​(a) ​President of India

​(b) ​Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet ​

(c) ​Election Commission of India

​(d) ​Parliament

Answer: (c)​

Explanation: The power to decide the date of an election in a state legislative assembly rests with the election commission of India.

Q30. Which one of the following states of India has passed legislation (1996) making the maintenance of one’s parents mandatory? ​

(a) ​Kerala ​

(b) ​West Bengal

​(c) ​Maharashtra ​

(d) ​Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (d)

Explanation: ​Himachal Pradesh passed legislation (1996) making the maintenance of one’s parents mandatory.

Q31. ​The Election Commissioner can be removed by the

​(a) ​Chief Election Commissioner ​

(b) ​Prime Minister ​

(c) ​President on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner ​

(d) ​Chief Justice of India

Answer: (c)​

Explanation: Election Commissioner/s can be removed by the President of India on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner

Q32. ‘Cabinet system’ and ‘Collective responsibility are the contributions of

(a) Ireland

(b) the United States

(c) India

(d) Britain

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Cabinet system and its collective responsibility is a constitutional convention in governments using the Westminster System that members of the Cabinet must publicly support all governmental decisions made in Cabinet, even if they do not privately agree with them. This support includes voting for the government in the legislature. In the United Kingdom, the doctrine applies to all members of the government, from members of the cabinet down to Parliamentary Private Secretaries.

Q33. Which one of the following has been recognized as National Party in 2016?

​(a) ​INLD ​

(b) ​Akali Dal

​(c) ​TMC

​(d) ​AIADMK

Answer: (c)​

Explanation: The All India Trinamool Congress is an Indian political party based in West Bengal. It was founded on 1st January 1998 and has been recognized as National Party in 2016.

Q34. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was created ​

(a) ​Through an act of the parliament

​(b) ​By the Constitution ​

(c) ​Through a cabinet resolution ​

(d) ​None of the above

Answer: (b)​

Explanation: CAG of India was created by the constitution of India. (Article 148-151)

Q35. ​Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by ​

(a) ​State Election Commissioner ​

(b) ​Election Commission of India ​

(c) ​State Government ​

(d) ​Central Government

Answer: (a)​

Explanation: The superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.

Q36. Which one of the following is not an element of the State?

(a) Population

(b) Land

(c) Army

(d) Government

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The state has four essential elements. These are:

(1) Population,

(2) Territory (land),

(3) Government,

(4) Sovereignty (or independence).

The first two elements constitute the physical or material basis of the state while the last two form its political and spiritual basis. In modern times relations among nations have grown and many international organizations and institutions have come into being. Therefore some scholars have argued that international recognition is an essential element of the state.

Q37. When did the Indian Constitute Assembly meet for the first time?

(a) 26 Jan 1950

(b) ​15 Aug 1947

​(c) ​9 Dec 1946 ​

(d) ​19 Nov 1949

Answer: (c)

Explanation: ​The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held on 9 Dec 1946.

Q38. Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her?​​

  1. ​The nomination made by the candidate is found to be invalid. ​
  2. ​The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid. ​
  3. ​The candidate lost the polls but secured l/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election. ​

Select the correct answer using the codes given below ​

(a) ​1 and 2 ​

(b) ​Only 3 ​

(c) ​2 and 3 ​

(d) ​All of these

Answer: (b)​

Explanation: The deposit made by a candidate shall be returned if the following conditions are satisfied:- ​

(i)​ The candidate is not shown in the list of contesting candidates, that is to say, either his nomination was rejected or after his nomination was accepted, he withdrew his candidature; or ​

(ii) ​He dies before the commencement of the poll; or ​

(iii)​ He is elected; or ​

(iv)​ He is not elected but gets more than 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled by all the candidates at the election.

Q39. The salaries and allowances of the Council of Ministers of the State Government are paid from the:

​(a) ​Reserve Bank of India ​

(b) ​Treasury of the State Government

​(c) ​Contingency Fund of the State

​(d) ​Consolidated Fund of the State

Answer: (d)​

Explanation: Members of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council of a State shall be entitled to receive such salaries and allowances, as may from time to time be determined, by the Legislature of the State by law and, until provision in that respect, is so made, salaries and allowances at such rates and upon such conditions as were immediately before the commencement of this Constitution applicable in the case of members of the Legislative Assembly of the corresponding province. The salary is paid from the state consolidated fund.

Q40. Who is considered the Architect of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) B.R. Ambedkar

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) B.N. Rao

Answer: (b)

Explanation:  B. R. Ambedkar was the chief architect of the Indian Constitution. Granville Austin has described the Indian Constitution drafted by Ambedkar as ‘first and foremost a social document’. … ‘The majority of India’s constitutional provisions are either directly arrived at furthering the aim of social revolution or attempt to foster this revolution by establishing conditions necessary for its achievement.”

Q41. Consider the following statements:​

  1. ​An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill only in the Lok Sabha. ​
  2. ​The Bill for amendment of the Constitution of India has to be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. ​

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ​

(a) ​Only 1

​(b) ​Only 2 ​

(c) ​Both 1 and 2 ​

(d) ​Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) ​

Explanation: An amendment of the constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.

Q42. The Planning Commission of India has been constituted

(a) ​Under constitutional provision with a specific mention for it ​

(b) ​Through an Act of Parliament ​

(c) ​Through a cabinet decision in this regard ​

(d) ​Through a constitutional amendment

Answer: (c)​

Explanation: The Planning Commission was established in March 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of India, on the recommendation of the Advisory Planning Board constituted in 1946, under the chairmanship of KC Neogi. Thus, the Planning Commission is neither constitutional nor a statutory body. The planning commission has been replaced by a new institution namely NITI Aayog.

Q43. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on:

(a) Simon Commission

(b) Lord Curzon Commission

(c) Dimitrov Thesis

(d) Lord Clive’s report

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The provincial part of the Government of India Act, 1935 basically followed the recommendations of the Simon Commission. Simon Commission had proposed an almost fully responsible government in the provinces. Under the 1935 Act, provincial dyarchy was abolished; i.e. all provincial portfolios were to be placed in charge of ministers enjoying the support of the provincial legislatures.

Q44. ​Who of the following has stated that ‘The Constitution has not been set in a right mould of Federalism’?

​(a) ​D. D.  Basu ​

(b) ​K. M.  Munshi ​

(c) ​B. R.  Ambedkar ​

(d) ​A. K.  Iyer

Answer: (d)

Explanation: ​A. K. Aiyer was a member of the constituent assembly of India from Madras state.

Q45. What are the Terms of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

​(a) ​6 years

​(b) ​up to 65 years of age ​

(c) ​6 years or 65 years of age, whichever earlier ​

(d) ​up to 64 years of age

Answer: (c)​

Explanation: CAG of India holds office for 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever earlier.

Q46. ​Consider the following statements: ​

  1. ​There was a special provision for the Anglo-Indian community in certain services. ​
  2. ​The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was passed in 1955. ​
  3. ​The Untouchability (Offences) Act, was renamed the Protection of Civil Rights Act. ​

Which of the statements given above are correct?

​(a) ​1, 2 and 3 ​

(b) ​1 and 2 ​

(c) ​2 and 3

​(d) ​1 and 3

Answer: (d) ​

Explanation: The Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to prevent atrocities against scheduled castes and scheduled tribes ​​To, further strengthen the constitutional provision in Article 15 and Article 17, the parliament of India enacted the Untouchability (Offenses) Act in 1955. This act was further amended and renamed in 1976 as the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

Q47. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the President’s rule in the state

​(a) ​On the recommendation of the State Legislature ​

(b) ​On the recommendation of the President ​

(c) ​On the recommendation of the Chief Minister ​

(d) ​If he is convinced the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India

Answer: (d)

Explanation: ​President’s rule refers to Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with the failure of the constitutional machinery of an Indian state. In the event that the government in a state is not able to function as per the Constitution, the state comes under the direct control of the central government, with executive authority exercised through the Governor instead of a Council of Ministers headed by an elected Chief Minister accountable to the state legislature. Article 356 is invoked if there has been a failure of the constitutional machinery in any state of India.

Q48. ​In which year, the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1972) was assented by the President? ​

(a) ​1990 ​

(b) ​1991 ​

(c) ​1993

​(d) ​1994

Answer: (c)

Explanation: ​The constitutional 73rd &74th Amendment Acts 1992 received the assent of the President of India on 20th April 1993 and came into force on 24th April and on 1st June 1993 respectively.

Q49. Which party has advocated the coming together of all Left parties? ​

(a) ​CPI ​

(b) ​CPI (M)

​(c) ​NCP ​

(d) ​INC

Answer: (a)

Explanation: ​Communist Party of India (CPI) has advocated coming together all left parties.

Q50. Which among the following is not a part of the electoral reforms? ​

(a) ​Installation of electronic voting machines ​

(b) ​Appointment of election Commissioner ​

(c) ​Registration of Political parties ​

(d) ​Disqualifying the offenders

Answer: (a)​

Explanation: Electoral reforms are changing in electoral systems to improve how public desires are expressed in election results, Installation of electronic voting machines is not part of such reforms.

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