Politics MCQ Questions with Answer for all Competitive Exams

Share on facebook
Facebook
Share on twitter
Twitter
Share on telegram
Telegram
Share on whatsapp
WhatsApp
Share on pinterest
Pinterest
Share on reddit
Reddit
Share on tumblr
Tumblr
Politics MCQ Questions with Answer

Q61. Which of the following is not a ‘Fundamental Right’?

(a) Right to Equality

(b) Right to Property

(c) Right to Freedom

(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The right to property, also known as the right to protection of property, is a human right and is understood to establish an entitlement to private property. The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. Article 19 guaranteed to all citizens the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of the property. Article 31 provided that “no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.” It also provided that compensation would be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes. The provisions relating to the right to property were changed a number of times. The Forty-Fourth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights.

Q62. The Draft Constitution as framed only provides machinery for the Government of the country.  It is not a contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries.  Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy’

The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to ​

(a) ​Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru ​

(b) ​Dr B R Ambedkar ​

(c) ​Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

​(d) ​Acharya J B Kriplani

Answer: (b) ​

Explanation: On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members assisted by a constitutional advisor. These members were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, K M Munshi, Alladi Krishna swamyIyer, N Gopala swami Ayengar, B L Mitter, and Md. Saadullah. A Draft Constitution was prepared by the committee and submitted to the Assembly on 4 November 1947. This is Ambedkar’s second argument rested on the legitimacy of the democratic system.

Q63. Which among the following statements regarding Lord Ripon’s plan for local self-government in India is/are correct?​​

  1. ​The district should be the maximum area served by one Committee or Local Board. ​
  2. ​The Local Boards should consist of a large majority of nominated official members and be presided over by an official member as Chairman. ​

Select the correct answer using the codes given below ​

(a) ​Only 1 ​

(b) ​Only 2 ​

(c) ​Both 1 and 2 ​

(d) ​Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation: ​Lord Ripon’s plan for local Self-government in India is as follows: ​

1.​ The sub-division, not the district, should be the maximum area served by one committee or local board with primary boards under it serving very small areas so that each member of it might possess knowledge of and interest in its affairs. ​

​2. The local boards should consist of a large majority of elected non-official members, and they should be presided over by a non-official member.

Q64. A writ issued by the Supreme Court compelling a quasi-judicial/public authority to perform its mandatory duty is

(a) Quo warranto

(b) Mandamus

(c) Certiorari

(d) Prohibition

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The term “mandamus” literally means “command.” Mandamus is a judicial remedy which is in the form of an order from a superior court to any government subordinate court, corporation, or public authority to do or forbear from doing some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do or refrain from doing, as the case may be, and which is in the nature of public duty and in certain cases of statutory duty.

Q65. Assertion (A): the number of Members of the Union Public Service Commission is preserved in the Constitution of India.  ​

Reason (R): The Union Public Service Commission was constituted under the provisions in the Constitution of India.  ​

Codes:​​

​(a) ​Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A ​

(b) ​Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A ​

(c) ​A is true, but R is false ​

(d) ​A is false, but R is true

Answer: (d)​

Explanation: A is false because the constitution without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. According to article 315, the UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. Articles 315 to 323 of Part XIV of the constitution provide for a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each state.

Q66. . ‘Directive Principles’ in our Constitution are

(a) Enforceable in the courts of law

(b) Quasi-enforceable

(c) Partly non-enforceable

(d) Non-enforceable in the courts of law

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. These provisions, contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down therein are considered fundamental in the governance of the country, making it the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society in the country.

Q67. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to ​

(a) ​Distribute revenue between the center and the state.  ​

(b) ​Advise the president on financial matters

​(c) ​Advise the president on financial matters.

​(d) ​Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments.

Answer: (c)​

Explanation: The finance commission can only advise the president on financial matters such as the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.

Q68. ​Who notifies the alteration in limits of Block and Zila Panchayat?​

​(a) ​Governor

​(b) ​State Election Commission ​

(c) ​Divisional Commissioner ​

(d) ​Collector and District Returning Officer

Answer: (a)​

Explanation: Governor will notify the alternation in limits of Block and Zila Panchayat.

Q69. A Secular State is one which:

(a) Has no religion of its own

(b) Is irreligious

(c) Is anti-religion

(d) Takes into consideration the religious sentiments of the people

Answer: (a)

Explanation: A secular state is a concept of secularism, whereby a state or country purports to be officially neutral in matters of religion, supporting neither religion nor irreligion. A secular state also claims to treat all its citizens equally regardless of religion and claims to avoid preferential treatment for a citizen from a particular religion/non-religion over other religions/ non-religion. Secular states do not have a state religion or equivalent, although the absence of a state religion does not guarantee that a state is secular

Q70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

List-I (Finance Commission)List-II (Chairman)
A.  First Finance Commission1.  P. V.  Rajamannar
B.  Fourth Finance Commission2.  K. C.  Neogy
C.  Sixth Finance Commission3.  Y. B.  Chavan
D.  Eighth Finance Commission4.  Brahamananda Reddy

Codes: A B C D

(a)        2 1 4 3

(b)       4 3 2 1

(c)        2 3 4 1

(d)       4 1 2 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: ​First Finance Commission – K.C. Neogy ​​

Fourth Finance Commission – P.V. Rajamannar ​​

Sixth Finance Commission – Brahamananda Reddy ​​

Eighth Finance Commission– Y.B. Chavan

Pages ( 7 of 10 ): « Previous1 ... 6 7 8 ... 10Next »
error: Content is protected !!