CTET July 2013 Question Paper-2

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CTET July 2013 Question Paper-2 with Answer
Child DevelopmentMath and ScienceSocial ScienceLanguage-I(Eng)Language-II(Hindi)

Candidate have to do questions number 31 to 90 either from Part-II ( Mathematics and Science ) or from Part-III ( Social Studies/ Social Science):

Social Studies/ Social Science

Q31. According to Arthashastra, during Mauryan period North- West was important for

(a) Cotton

(b) Gold and precious stones

(c) Silver and copper

(d) Blanket

 Answer: (d) Blanket

Explain: North-West was the hilly and mountainous region where sheep rearing was done to obtain wool which was used to make blankets.

Q32. Amphorae was a

(a) coin of Italy

(b) red glazed pottery

(c) tall double handled jar

(d) perforated pot

 Answer: (c) tall double handled jar

Explain: Amphorae was a tall double handled jar used in vast numbers for the transport and storage of various products, both liquid and dry, but mostly for wine and were made up of ceramics.

Q33. Pepper was as valued in Roman Empire that as it was called

(a) Black magic

(b) Black charm

(c) Black stone

(d) Black gold

 Answer: (d) Black gold

Explain: Dried ground pepper has been used since antiquity for both its flavor and as a medicine. Black pepper is the world’s most traded spice. It is one of the most common spices added to European cuisine and its descendants. The spiciness of black pepper is due to the chemical piperine. It is ubiquitous in the modern world, often paired with salt.

Q34. Persian wheel, spinning wheel and firearms were invented during

(a) Pre-historic period

(b) Ancient period

(c) Medieval period

(d) Modern period

 Answer: (c) Medieval period

Explain: One of the most historical events of the Medieval Age was the crusades when the Christians of Europe travelled 3000 miles to fight in the eastern holy lands. The crusaders experienced eastern cultures of lifestyle and brought back to Europe some inventions developed in this part of the world including silk, gunpowder, the compass and the astrolabe.

Q35. A Sanskrit Prashasti has been found in praise of which of the following Delhi Sultans?

(a) IItutmish

(b) Balban

(c) Alauddin Khalji

(d) Firoz Tughlaq

 Answer: (b) Balban

Explain: Balban’s theory of kingship was based on Power, Prestige and Justice.

Q36. Hiranya-garbha ritual was performed

(a) when a king won a territory

(b) To declare the king as Kshatriya even if he was not one by birth.

(c) before hunting a deer.

(d) for the birth of male child.

 Answer: (b) To declare the king as Kshatriya even if he was not one by birth.

Explain: Hiranyagarbha literally means the golden womb. To declare the king as Kshatriya in a grand coronation ceremony was performed even if he was not one by birth.

Q37. During the Chola period associations of traders were known as

(a) Gramam

(b) Shrenis

(c) Nagaram

(d) Sabha

 Answer: (c) Nagaram

Explain: Associations of traders during the Chola empire were known as ‘nagarams.

Q38. Nath literature is associated with

(a) Bengali

(b) Assamese

(d) Maithili

(c) Odiya

 Answer: (a) Bengali

Explain: Nath Literature (medieval Bangla Literature) based on the Nath cult or Yog-sadhana and part of the ancient religious heritage of India. The main god of Naths is Shiva who is also called Adinath.

Q39. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan started a powerful non-violent movement in North- West Frontier Province, known as

(a) Ram-Rahim Movement

(b) Khilafat Movement

(c) Khudai-Khidmatgar Movement

(d) Pakhtun Movement

 Answer: (c) Khudai-Khidmatgar Movement

Explain: He was also known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’ because he carried on the Gandhian method of freedom struggle in the North West Frontier Provinces.

Q40. After the Congress Resolution (1929) to fight for Purna Swaraj, ‘Independence Day’ was observed on

(a) 15 August 1930

(b) 26 January 1930

(c) 1 January 1930

(d) 2October 1930

 Answer: (b) 26 January 1930

Explain: In the Lahore session of 1929 Congress passed the resolution of complete independence.

Q41. Big Bear is an example of

(a) Milky way

(b) Constellation

(c) Star

(d) Galaxy

 Answer: (b) Constellation

Explain: Ursa Major is a constellation visible throughout the year in most of the northern hemisphere. It can best be seen in April. It is dominated by the widely recognized asterism known as the Big Dipper or the Plough, which is a useful pointer towards the north, and it has mythological significance in numerous world cultures.

Q42. Only one side of the moon is visible from the earth because

(a) other side of the moon is towards the earth only during the day time

(b) other side of the moon is towards the earth only on the New Moon (Amavashya).

(c) time taken by the moon to move around the earth and to complete one spin is same.

(d) it takes the moon one light year to complete one spin.

 Answer: (c) time taken by the moon to move around the earth and to complete one spin is same.

Explain: The Moon makes a complete orbit around the Earth with respect to the fixed stars about once every 27.3 days (its sidereal period). However, since the Earth is moving in its orbit about the Sun at the same time, it takes slightly longer for the Moon to show the same phase to Earth, which is about 29.5 days (its synodic period).

Q43. The earth moves on its axis

(a) from West to East

(b) from North to South

(c) from East to West

(d) from South to North

 Answer: (a) from West to East

Explain: Earth’s rotation is the rotation of the solid Earth around its own axis. The Earth rotates from the west towards the east. As viewed from the North Star or polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise.

Q44. As we move from Eastern Hemisphere to Western Hemisphere the size of longitudes

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(c) remains same

(d) first increases then decreases

 Answer: (c) remains same

Explain: Longitude is a geographic coordinate that specifies the east-west position of a point on the Earth’s surface. It is an angular measurement, usually expressed in degrees and denoted by the Greek letter lambda (?).

Q45. The Earth Day is

(a) The time during which the sun shines on a specific place on the earth.

(b) The measure of standard time at Greenwich.

(c) Period of rotation of the earth around its axis.

(d) Period of revolution of the earth around the sun.

 Answer: (c) Period of rotation of the earth around its axis.

Explain: Period of rotation of the earth around its own axis equals to one earth day.

Q46. On equinox, direct rays of the sun fall on

(a) Tropic of Cancer

(b) Equator

(c) Tropic of Capricorn

(d) Arctic Circle

 Answer: (b) Equator

Explain: An equinox occurs twice a year (around 20 March and 22 September), when ne plane of the Earth’s equator passes the center or the Sun. At this time the tilt of the Earth’s axis is inclined neither away from nor towards the Sun. The term equinox can also be used in a broader sense, meaning the date when such a passage happens. The name “equinox is derived from the Latin acqus (equal) and nox (night), because around the equinox, night and day are about equal length.

Q47. There are many harbors and ports in Atlantic Ocean because

(a) There is large volume of sea trade between the U.S.A. and Europe.

(b) Fishery industry is flourishing in the Atlantic Ocean.

(c) The coastline of the Atlantic Ocean is highly indented.

(d) The coastline of the Atlantic Ocean is very shallow.

 Answer: (c) The coastline of the Atlantic Ocean is highly indented.

Explain: It is due to the highly indented coastline of the Atlantic oceans that there are many ports and harbors.

Q48. Which is the world’s longest mountain range?

(a) The Himalayas

(b) The Rocky

(c) The Andes

(d) The Alps

 Answer: (c) The Andes

Explain: The Andes is the longest continental mountain range in the world. It is a continual range of highlands along the western coast of South America. This range is about 7,000 km (4,300 mi) long, about 200 km (120 mi) to 700 km (430 mi) wide (widest between 18 south and 20° south latitude), and of an average height of about 4,000 m (13,000 f). The Andes extend from north to south through seven South American countries: Argentina, Bolivia, Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, and Venezuela.

Q49. In India Tropical Rain Forests are found in

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Andaman & Nicobar Islands

(d) Rajasthan

 Answer: (c) Andaman & Nicobar Islands

Explain: A tropical rainforest is an ecosystem type that occurs roughly within the latitudes 28 degrees north or south of the equator (in the equatorial zone between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn). This ecosystem experiences high average temperatures and a significant amount of rain fall. Rainforests can be found in Asia, Australia, Africa, South America, Central America, Mexico and on many of the Pacific, Caribbean, and Indian Ocean islands.

Q50. During the retreating monsoon period, the moisture laden winds blow from

(a) Valley to plains

(b) Land to sea

(c) Sea to land

(d) Plateau to plains

 Answer: (b) Land to sea

Explain: The South-West monsoon becomes a weak current and withdraws from Punjab by mid-September. It leaves the Ganga delta by late October. By early November, it leaves the southern part of the peninsula. These particular months from September to November are termed as the period of ‘retreating monsoon’. During this time, the days are hot, nights are cool and the daily range of temperature is high.

Q51. Which of the following is called “lungs’ of the earth ?

(a) Tropical evergreen forest of Brazil.

(b) Tropical deciduous forest of Central America.

(c) Temperate evergreen forest of China.

(d) Temperate deciduous forest of Chile.

 Answer: (a) Tropical evergreen forest of Brazil.

Explain: Tropical evergreen forest of brazil are known as Lungs of earth because these biomes are the ones responsible for taking in carbon dioxide. Plants and trees, mostly located in Tropical Rainforests have foliage throughout the year, and help in the process of oxygen formation. They help in carrying out one of the most important processes to keep life on Earth, Photosynthesis which is an important biochemical procedure that takes Carbon Dioxide, sun light and water to produce oxygen and glucose.

Q52. Which is the largest river basin in the world?

(a) Ganga river basin

(b) Nile river basin

(c) Mississippi river basin

(d) Amazon river basin

 Answer: (d) Amazon river basin

Explain: The Amazon Basin is the part of South America drained by the Amazon River and its tributaries that drains an area of about 6,915,000 km2(2,670,000 sq mi), or roughly 40 percent of South America. The basin is located in the countries of Bolivia, Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana, Peru, and Venezuela.

Q53. What is ‘Maloca”?

(a) A tribe

(b) A house type

(c) A wild animal

(d) A resident of Malacca

 Answer: (b) A house type

Explain: A maloca is an ancestral long house used by the natives of the Amazon, notably in Colombia and Brazil. Each community has a maloca with its own unique characteristics. For many years, these long houses were Jesuit missionaries’ objects of attack. Several families with patrilineal relations live together in a maloca, distributed around the long house in different compartments.

Q54. Using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called

(a) Resource conservation

(b) Sustainable development

(c) Resource management

(d) Development management

 Answer: (a) Resource conservation

Explain: Reduce, Reuse, Recycle: Learn ways to reduce household and industrial waste. Three primary strategies for effectively managing materials and waste are reduce, reuse, and recycle. Reduce waste by making smart decisions when purchasing products, including the consideration of product packaging. Reuse containers and products. Recycle materials ranging from paper to food scraps, yard trimmings, and electronics. Purchase products manufactured with recycled content.

Q55. Shelter belt is a method of

(a) water conservation

(b) soil formation

(c) plantation

(d) soil conservation

 Answer: (d) soil conservation

Explain: A windbreak or shelterbelt is a plantation usually made up of one or more rows of trees or shrubs planted in such a manner as to provide shelter from the wind and to protect soil from erosion. They are commonly planted around the edges of fields on farms.

Q56. Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh is a

(a) Paleolithic site

(b) Neolithic site

(c ) Megalithic site

(d) Mesolithic site

 Answer: (a) Paleolithic site

Explain: The Bhimbetka rock shelters are an archaeological site of the Paleolithic, exhibiting the earliest traces of human life on the Indian subcontinent, and thus the beginning of the South Asian Stone Age. It is located in the Raisen District in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. The Bhimbetka shelters exhibit the earliest traces of human life in India.

Q57. Which of the three Gods were especially important in the Rigvedic period?

(a) Rudra, Vishnu and Indra

(b) Agni, Indra and Soma

(c) Indra, Varun and Rudra

(d) Agni, Indra and Vishnu

 Answer: (b) Agni, Indra and Soma

Explain: In the Rigveda it is stated that there are 33 deities associated with sky (dyu), earth (prithvi) and the middle realm (antariksha), though a larger number of deities are mentioned in the text. There are 1028 hymns in the Rigveda, most of them dedicated to specific deities.

Q58. Sanskrit is considered to be a part of the family of languages known as

(a) Indo-Aryan

(b) Indo-Greek

(c) Indo-European

(d) Indo-Arabian

 Answer: (a) Indo-Aryan

Explain: Sanskrit is a historical Indo-Aryan language, the primary liturgical language of Hinduism and a literary and scholarly language in Buddhism and Jainism. Developing from Vedic Sanskrit, today it is listed as one of the 22 scheduled languages of India and is an official language of the state of Uttarakhand.

Q59. At which place it was general practice to lay the dead with head towards North ?

(a) Inamgaon

(b) Burzahom

(c) Mehargarh

(d) Bhimbetka

 Answer: (a) Inamgaon

Explain: Harappan agrarian village and archaeological site located in Maharashtra, western India. Situated along the right bank of the Ghod River, it is considered to be the “regional centre” of the Bhima Valley.

Q60. The Buddha described the thirst of desires and cravings as

(a) Pipasa

(b) Trishna

(c) Tanha

(d) Teevra Ichcha (Strong desire)

 Answer: (b) Trishna

Q61. Branding of product

(a) makes it more saleable.

(b) differentiates it from other products in the market.

(c) makes it more attractive for customer.

(d) gives customer rebate on MRP.

 Answer: (b) differentiates it from other products in the market.

Explain: The American Marketing Association (AMA) defines a brand as a name, term, sign, symbol or design, or a combination of them intended to identify the goods and services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of other sellers.

Q62. Which part of the Indian Constitution is often referred to as the ‘Conscience’ of the Constitution ?

(a) The part dealing with the Directive Principles.

(b) The part dealing with the Fundamental Rights.

(c) The part dealing with the reservation policy for SCs, STs and OBCs.

(d) The Preamble of the Constitution.

 Answer: (b) The part dealing with the Fundamental Rights.

Q63. How many members can be nominated to the Lok Sabha?

(a) None

(b) Two

(c) Four

(d) Twelve

 Answer: (b) Two

Explain: Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of the people chosen by direct election on the basis of adult suffrage. The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the Hon’ble President, if, in his/her opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House.

Q64. A judge gives decision on a case

(a) on the basis of argument

(b) on the basis of fee paid

(c) on the basis of evidence

(d) on the basis of police inquiry

 Answer: (c) on the basis of evidence

Explain: A judge gives a decision on a case on the basis of evidence.

Q65. Which of the following cult bas distinctive tribal influence?

(a) Cult of Venkateshwara

(b) Cult of Jagannath

(c) Cult of Vishwanath

(d) Cult of Amamath

 Answer: (b) Cult of Jagannath

Explain: In the Rigveda, there is mention of a Daru (log of wood) floating in the ocean. Vedic prayers have indicated taking shelter in the Daru. In spite of the fact that Acharya Sayana, the noted commentator on the Vedas, has categorically interpreted the hymn with Jagannath as the daru floating at the sea shores, some scholars have refuted this interpretation under the argument that the hymn deals with “Alaxmi Stava” of Arayi.

Q66. Diseases like diarrhea, dysentery, cholera can be prevented through

(a) education of health and hygiene

(b) better health care facilities

(c) providing safe drinking water

(d) providing cheap medicines

 Answer: (c) providing safe drinking water

Explain: Waterborne diseases are caused by pathogenic microorganisms that most commonly are transmitted in contaminated fresh water. Infection commonly results during bathing, washing, drinking, in the preparation of food, or the consumption of food thus infected.

Q67. More often discussions on government and its functioning lead to extreme views, therefore teacher should

(a) avoid any debate or discussion on it.

(b) criticize the way government functions.

(c) argue for judicial activism

(d) organize more objective interactions as compared to did active views.

 Answer: (d) organize more objective interactions as compared to did active views.

Explain: In recent advancements towards handling high objective optimization problems, it is proposed to progressively integrate the decision-maker with the execution of an evolutionary multi-objective optimization algorithm.

Q68. The views of social scientists vary the most on which of the following agents regarding their impact on the behavior and attitudes of children and adolescents?

(a) Family

(b) School

(c) Television

(d) Peer

 Answer: (c) Television

Explain: Television is one of the most mobilizing media to propagate new ideas and views.

Q69. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to increase the time spent on academic activities by the students in a Social Science class?

(a) Assigning homework three times a week.

(b) Assigning individual projects on new topics before discussing the topic in class.

(c) Incorporating lots of new material in a lecture to be delivered to sustain interest.

(d) Proper lesson planning and abiding by the time schedule for every activity.

 Answer: (d) Proper lesson planning and abiding by the time schedule for every activity.

Explain: Proper lesson planning and abiding by the time schedule for every activity.

Q70. A student was interested in studying problems faced by Indian soldiers during the Kargil War. She interviews several soldiers who took part in the Kargil War. These soldiers can be considered

(a) Secondary sources

(b) Primary sources

(c) Actual narrators

(d) Internal sources

 Answer: (b) Primary sources

Explain: Primary sources provide first-hand testimony or direct evidence concerning a topic under investigation. They are created by witnesses or recorders who experienced the events or conditions being documented.

Q71. A teacher wants to give a case study to students of class-VII. Which of the following topics would be most appropriate?

(a) Earthquake

(b) Major crops of India

(c) Minerals found in India

(d) Structure of the earth

 Answer: (a) Earthquake

Explain: Earthquakes are among the recently occurring natural calamities that need to be studied thoroughly by the students of class-VI.

Q72. Valuing observable facts over individual preferences in deriving deduction is called

(a) Reasoning

(b) Free association

(c) Egocentrism

(d) Social brainstorming

 Answer: (a) Reasoning

Explain: Reason is the capacity for consciously making sense of things, applying logic, for establishing and verifying facts, and changing or justifying practices, institutions, and beliefs based on new or existing information. It is closely associated with such characteristically human activities as philosophy, science, language, mathematics, and art, and is normally considered to be a definitive characteristic of human nature.

Q73. To show land use in different countries of the world, which of the following would be a suitable teaching aid?

(a) Flowchart

(b) Comparative chart

(c) Timeline chart

(d) Venn diagram

 Answer: (b) Comparative chart

Explain: In a Comparative chart land-use patterns of different countries are shown which can be used for a better teaching aid.

Q74. A teacher writes an instructional objectives for his/her lesson plan as ‘Students will be able to give reasons for the downfall of Mauryan Dynasty'”. This objective will come under

(a) Knowledge

(b) Understanding

(c) Application

(d) Synthesis

 Answer: (b) Understanding

Explain: Understanding (also called intellection) is a psychological process related to an abstract or physical object, such as a person, situation, or message whereby one is able to think about it and use concepts to deal adequately with that object. Understanding is a relation between the knower and an object of understanding. Understanding implies abilities and dispositions with respect to an object of knowledge sufficient to support intelligent behavior.

Q75. All of the following are characteristics of creative thinking except:

(a) Ability to always produce right answers to problems posed

(b) Synthesize from a variety of sources

(c) A flexible and imaginative way to approach a problem

(d) Purposeful, reflective judgment

 Answer: (a) Ability to always produce the right answers to problems posed

Explain: A way of looking at problems or situations from a fresh perspective that suggests unorthodox solutions (which may look unsettling at first). Creative thinking can be stimulated both by an unstructured process such as brainstorming and by a structured process such as lateral thinking.

Q76. During Social Science class, students begin to discuss whether a mobile tower should be allowed to install in the proximity of their school or not. A student says that the radiation from the tower would make students sick. Another student says I heard this on the news that mobile towers do not make people sick. As a teacher, you would

(a) Encourage students to organize a dharna (protest) outside the office of local administration.

(b) Motivate students to collect evidence that will help them assess the situation objectively.

(c) Organize a structured debate on this topic in the class.

(d) Organize an election to know the support in favor of and against.

 Answer: (b) Motivate students to collect evidence that will help them assess the situation objectively.

Explain: Motivate students to collect evidence that will help them assess the situation objectively.

Q77. At the upper primary stage, according to NCF-2005, the content of Social Studies will draw its content from which of the following subjects?

(a) History, Civics and Geography

(b) History, Geography, Political Science and Economics

(c) Environmental Science, History, Civics and Geography

(d) Disaster Management, History, Political Science and Values Education

 Answer: (b) History, Geography, Political Science and Economics

Q78. For which of the following a time-line would be best suited or

(a) To give a summary of a dynasty

(b) To explain the achievements of a ruler

(c) To compare two dynasties.

(d) To teach ancient history

 Answer: (a) To give a summary of a dynasty

Q79. Locating a place on the map is associated with

(a) Knowledge

(b) Comprehension

(c) Application

(d) Skill

 Answer: (d) Skill

Explain: Skill: A skill is a learned ability to carry out a task with pre-determined results often within a given amount of time, energy, or both. In other words, the abilities that one possesses.

Q80. Children have little exposure to laws, therefore, while discussing laws, it is important that teacher should

(a) explain all the aspects of laws very clearly.

(b) give as many examples from familiar context.

(c) discuss about juvenile laws only.

(d) create fear regarding laws.

 Answer: (b) give as many examples from familiar context.

Explain: A teacher should give as many examples from a familiar context so that different types of laws can be reviewed by the students.

Q81. A Social Science teacher must employ which of the following methods for being effective ?

(a) Increase engagement of students by thought provoking and interesting activities.

(b) Increase the knowledge of students by taking tests on every Monday.

(c) Award grades in a lax manner to boost the confidence of slow learners.

(d) Assign projects to be done at home so as to involve parents in the studies of their ward.

 Answer: (a) Increase engagement of students by thought provoking and interesting activities.

Q82. In a discussion on Constitution, it is important that it is discussed in historical context so that students become aware that

(a) democracy has its roots in India.

(b) republics flourished in ancient India.

(c) anti-colonial struggle had its major influence.

(d) Indian Constitution is the oldest in the world.

 Answer: (c) anti-colonial struggle had its major influence.

Explain: Anti-colonial struggle had its major influence that influenced the making and framing of laws in the constitution.

Q83. Outcome oriented student learning model in Social Science will focus primarily on which of the following?

(a) Group activities, excursions and summative assessments

(b) Complete coverage of course, information centered teaching and summative assessments

(c) Learning objectives, learning activities, formative and summative assessments

(d) Aims of education, new teaching method, board exam

 Answer: (c) Learning objectives, learning activities, formative and summative assessments

Q84. The content of Social Science should aim at

(a) making students familiar with happenings in the world around.

(b) raising students awareness through critically exploring and questioning of familiar social reality.

(c) inculcating nationalism in students.

(d) imparting knowledge about developed countries.

 Answer: (b) raising students awareness through critically exploring and questioning of familiar social reality.

Q85. In a pluralistic society like ours, it is important that textbooks should be such that

(a) they reflect government views to make children a good citizen.

(b) controversial issues are avoided.

(c) all regions and social groups be able to relate to them.

(d) different textbooks are available for different regions.

 Answer: (c) all regions and social groups be able to relate to them.

Q86. According to NCF 2005, the aim of education in Social Science should be enable student to

(a) Criticize political decisions

(b) Analyze socio-political reality

(c) Retention of information on socio-political situation in the country

(d) Present knowledge about socio political principles in a lucid and concise way so that students remember them easily

 Answer: (b) Analyze socio-political reality

Explain: Analyze socio-political reality. These are issues that regulated by a political policy that affect whole societies like global warming, communicable disease control, radioactive waste disposal, resource management, food safety, fish and wildlife management, biotechnology endangered species protection, pollution management.

Q87. The Civil Rights Movement was started in the U.S.A. to

(a) demand for fundamental rights for African-Americans

(b) demand for equal rights and the end to racial discrimination.

(c) demand for voting rights for women.

(d) demand for social security for old.

 Answer: (b) demand for equal rights and the end to racial discrimination.

Explain: The African-American Civil Rights Movement encompasses social movements in the United States whose goal was to end racial segregation and discrimination against black Americans and enforce constitutional voting rights to them. This article covers the phase of the movement between 1955 and 1968, particularly in the South. The movement was characterized by major campaigns of civil resistance.

Q88. How a Chief Minister is chosen ?

(a) By the President of the party which has got majority in the election.

(b) By the MLA’s of the party which has got majority in the election.

(c) By the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(d) By the President of India on the recommendation of the Governor.

 Answer: (b) By the MLA’s of the party which has got majority in the election.

Explain: A Chief Minister is the elected head of government of a sub-national (e.g. constituent federal) state, notably a state (and sometimes a union territory) of India.

Q89. Which of the following shows gender stereotyping?

(a) Girls are more talented than boys.

(b) Girls can do only household works.

(c) Girls can do all type of works which a boy can do.

(d) Girls should get equal opportunity as boys

 Answer: (b) Girls can do only household works.

Q90. Ina democracy the media plays a very important role in

(a) providing news and discussing events taking place in the country and the world.

(b) advertising goods so that people can buy goods of their choice

(c) telecasting cricket events so that people can watch sitting at home.

(d) providing many types of entertainment materials.

 Answer: (a) providing news and discussing events taking place in the country and the world.

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