CTET 2014 September Paper-2 Question with Answer
|Child Development||Math and Science||Social Science|
|Language-I (Eng)||Language-II (Hindi)|
The candidate has to do questions number 31 to 90 either from Part-II ( Mathematics and Science ) or from Part-III ( Social Studies/ Social Science):
DIRECTIONS: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options.
Q31. In some areas, people started living in villages about 8000 years ago. Which of the following were among these areas?
(a) Areas around Narmada
(b) Sulaiman and Kirthar hills
(c) Ganga and Yamuna doab
(d) Deccan and Konkan
Q32. Which of the following areas was known as Magadh in the ancient period?
(a) South of Ganga
(b) Between Ganga and Yamuna
(c) North of Ganga
(d) Between Yamuna and Chambal
Q33. Bharata was a group of people mentioned in the Rig-Veda. They lived in
(a) South India
(b) North India
(c) West India
(d) North-West India
Q34. Rig-Veda was originally composed in
Q35. Which of the following was not a reason for hunter-gatherers to move from place to place?
(a) Staying at one place would deplete resources
(b) To follow the movement of animals which they hunted
(c) To fight for resources with another group of hunter-gatherers
(d) To search for water resources
Q36. Which period is the longest in human history?
(a) Paleolithic age
(b) Megalithic age
(c) Mesolithic age
(d) Neolithic age
Q37. Ancient Rock Paintings have been found in
(a) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(b) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
(d) Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
Q38. Which of the following is not a Harappan site?
Q39. Puru, Yadu and Bharata are mentioned in Vedasas
Q40. ‘Shafi’ and ‘Hanafi’ are
(a) Islamic architecture styles
(b) Places in Saudi Arabia
(c) Islamic schools of law
(d) Two Islamic rulers
Q41. Dantidurga, who performeda ritual called hiranya-garbha was a
(a) Chola King
(b) Pratihara Chief
(c) Rashtrakuta Chief
(d) Pallava Chief
Q42. Who has written that Raziya was more able and qualified than her brothers?
(d) Ziyauddin Barani
Q43. In an inscription, a Delhi Sultan is said to have been chosen by God because he had the qualities like Moses and Solomon. Who was that Delhi Sultan?
(a) Sikandar Lodi
(b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Alauddin Khilji
Q44. In which revenue settlement during the East India Company’s rule, was the village headman made responsible to collect revenue and pay it to the Company?
(a) Zamindari Settlement
(b) Permanent Settlement
(c) Ryotwari Settlement
(d) Mahalwari Settlement
Q45. In which ways did World War I alter the economic and political situation in India’?
(a) Political activities of the Indian National Congress were banned for six years.
(b) Common people got benefited as there was a sharp fall in prices.
(c) Many princely states rebelled against British rule.
(d) Indian industries expanded as war created a demand for industrial goods.
Q46. Which of the following is an example of the desert?
(d) Western Ghats
Q47. Which of the following statements regarding the position of the Earth is true?
(a) The axis of the Earth is a definite line that makes an angle of 66½° with its orbital plane.
(b) The axis of the Earth is a definite line that makes an angle of 23½° with its orbital plane.
(c) The axis of the Earth is an imaginary line that makes an angle of 66½°with its orbital plane.
(d) The axis of the Earth is an imaginary line that makes an angle of 23½° with its orbital plane.
Q48. The circle of illumination is the
(a) Circle that divides the globe into two parts
(b) Circle that divides the day from night on the globe
(c) Position of the Earth on equinox when day and night are equal
(d) Position of the Sun on a particular meridian at 12:00 o’clock in the noon
Q49. Conventionally direction marked ‘A’ represents
Q50. Lakshadweep Islands are located in the
(a) the Indian Ocean
(b) the Arabian Sea
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) the South China Sea
Q51. ‘Campos‘ found in Brazil is a
(b) tropical grassland
(c) traditional dance
(d) tropical animal
Q52. The Kolkata port is situated on/in the
(a) Ganga Sagar
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) River Hooghly
(d) River Bhagirathi
Q53. Which continent is the least populated in the world?
(c) South America
Q54. ‘Gompas’ found in Ladakh are
(a) Buddhist monasteries/temples
(b) Variety of goat
(c) Variety of shawl
(d) Buddhist monks
Q55. The diagram represents
(a) Orthographic Rainfall
(b) Convectional Rainfall
(c) Cyclonic Rainfall
(d) Pre-monsoon Rainfall
Q56. Which industry is often called the backbone of modern industries?
Q57. In organic farming
(a) chemical fertilizers are used to increase yield
(b) genetic modification is done to increase the yield
(c) natural manures and pesticides are used
(d) the only production of cotton has been allowed in India
Q58. Which of the following is true with regard to food security?
(a) Food security exists when government maintains a buffer stock of grains for the next five years.
(b) Government imposes a ban on grains exports for maintaining sufficient stock.
(c) Government encourages the production of organic foods for better and secure health.
(d) Food security exists when all people, at all times have access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food.
Q59. Which of the following is a popular eco-friendly automobile fuel?
Q60. The barometer is used to
(a) measure rain fall
(b) measure temperature
(c) measure atmospheric pressure
(d) measure sea level
Q61. The apostle of Christ, St. Thomas is believed to have come in
(c) Tamil Nadu
Q62. What is Zulu?
(a) A tribe of South Africa
(b) A language of South Africa
(c) National animal of South Africa
(d) A traditional dance of South Africa
Q63. According to the Constitution, how many organs of the State are there?
Q64. Federalism refers to
(a) existence of more than one level of government in the country
(b) Federation of States to run the country
(c) only the Central Government has the right to make laws
(d) Judiciary is the highest authority in the country
Q65. If a politician in one state decides to not allow laborers from other states to work in his state, which Fundamental Right will be violated?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) Right to constitutional remedies
Q66. The Rajya Sabha can have at most
(a) 225 members
(b) 235 members
(c) 245 members
(d) 260 members
Q67. The Parliament in our system has immense power because
(a) it has the power to make laws
(b) it has the power to overrule the judiciary
(c) it is representative of the people
(d) all powers are vested with the Parliament
Q68. The function of the executive in Indian democracy is to
(a) Enact laws
(b) Implement laws made by the Parliament
(c) Elect the Prime Minister
(d) Elect the President
Q69. The Mid-day Meal Program is said to have many positive effects. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a) Enrollment of poor children in schools has increased.
(b) Caste prejudices have been reduced.
(c) Poor students can now concentrate on their studies as they do not have empty stomachs.
(d) Poor children are getting high marks in examinations.
Q70. The wheel diagram shows typical employment opportunities for laborers in rural areas. For how long are they unable to get a regular job?
(a) Three months
(b) Four months
(c) Five months
(d) Six months
Q71. A method used in a Social Science classroom in which learners are asked to evaluate one another’s likeability is called a
(b) Sociometric techniques
(c) Case study
(d) Psychometric techniques
Q72. Which of the following is an essential quality of creative thinking?
Q73. In order to understand the role of various issues during an election, which of the following would you most likely ask your students
(a) Analyze newspaper editorials regarding arguments against each other by political parties
(b) Analyze each party’s priorities and the types of policies it is most likely to support
(c) Conduct a survey in your locality for the popularity of political parties
(d) Analyze and compare the time devoted by National news channels to different parties
Q74. Which of the following would you recommend; for peer learning in your classroom?
(b) Computer-aided learning
(c) Participation in routine activities only
(d) Visit research laboratories
Q75. Which of the following statements is correct about Social Science?
(a) Social Science is not concerned with diverse concerns of society.
(b) Social Science emphasizes homogeneity and rituals.
(c) Social Science is a subjective discipline.
(d) Social Science lays the foundation for an analytical and creative mindset.
Q76. In Social Science, the recent NCF position paper on examination reforms emphasizes
(a) open book exams
(b) continuous assessment
(c) test performance
(d) flexible sitting arrangement while testing
Q77. Studying the life-history of a village community to understand the education of the young ones is an example of which kind of data?
(a) Secondary data
(b) Narrative data
(c) Clinical case-study data
(d) Primary data
Q78. The process of deriving inferences from observable facts is called as
Q79. To show the change in rainfall in a particular region in a decade, which of the following would be a suitable teaching aid?
(c) Frequency polygon
(d) Venn diagram
Q80. To understand the importance of knowledge and wisdom of peers – is valued in which perspective?
Q81. Which of the following teaching methods would be most effective in Social Science that teachers must use?
(a) Ensure that learners have learned the content by taking repetitive tests
(b Assign grades liberally
(c) Engage learners in critical and thought-provoking activities
(d) Assign home assignments
Q82. In the Indian pluralistic society, textbooks of Social Science should
(a) reflect the majority opinion
(b) reflect the government’s views
(c) avoid controversial issues
(d) include and represent all religions and social groups
Q83. In order to teach about equity, which of the following would be the most suitable method?
(a) Give a lecture
(b) Give a project
(c) Assign field-work around the ideas of poverty and capitalism
(d) Highlight the constitutional provisions to promote equity
Q84. Which of the following will promote social learning of rules, regulations, and values?
(a) Project work
(b) Group discussions
(c) Book reading
(d) Writing essays
Q85. Which of the following descriptions of a learner’s behavior could be used to assess attitudes and values in a Social Science classroom?
(a) Accepting all the ideas of the teachers
(b) Insisting to work alone
(c) Feeling free to ask questions
(d) Getting good grades in academics
Q86. Diagnostic and remedial teaching in a Social Science classroom will involve
(a) recognition of the specific difficulty of the student
(b) providing a lot of material to read
(c) providing a lot of opportunity for discussions
(d) correcting the errors of students instantly
Q87. During teacher-education, Micro-teaching refers to which of the following?
(a) Teaching by observing the teacher-educator minutely
(b) Teaching a miniature classroom with peers role-playing as students
(c)Teaching students in small groups
(d) Teaching a small chunk of content at a time
Q88. When a teacher uses individual experiences in order to explain concepts in a Social Science class, then s/he is
(a) making the lesson engaging
(b) channelizing the energies of students
(c) promoting the ability to relate their local reality with the global context
(d) take care of the linguistic and cultural diversity among learners
Q89. Which of the following constitutes the cultural capital of a student?
(a) Monetary and financial resources
(b) Electronic equipment available for use by a student
(c) Educational background of the family
(d) Number of places that a student has visited
Q90. Which of the following is an aspect of progressive education in a Social Science classroom?
(a) Segregation of learners
(b) Functional intelligence
(c) Emphasis on scoring in examination
(d) Respect for plurality and multiplicity